NEET PG High Yield Questions on Parasitology with Solutions

NEET PG High Yield Questions on Parasitology: High-Yield Questions on Parasitology is an important part of the NEET PG syllabus, where questions test a student’s clarity on parasite life cycles, disease mechanisms, clinical features, and laboratory diagnosis. The subject is closely linked to real clinical practice, as many questions are framed around patient-based and diagnostic scenarios. In recent exams, Parasitology has also included a good number of MCQs and image-based questions, highlighting its practical and application-oriented nature.

NEET PG High Yield Questions on Parasitology

This section presents a set of high-yield Parasitology questions that are useful for NEET PG preparation. The questions are chosen to cover commonly tested concepts and exam-relevant areas. Each question is provided with the correct answer to help learners check their understanding and improve accuracy during revision.

Q1. The most reliable laboratory finding in amoebic liver abscess is:
A. Cysts detected in intestinal lumen
B. Trophozoites identified in aspirated pus
C. Cysts present in stool sample
D. Trophozoites seen only in formed stool
Ans: B

Q2. How many nuclei are present in the fully mature cyst of Entamoeba coli?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Ans: D

Q3. Chromatoid bars found in amoebic cysts are mainly composed of:
A. Lipid material
B. Glycogen granules
C. Ribonucleoprotein
D. Polysaccharide matrix
Ans: C

Q4. Which feature best helps in differentiating Entamoeba histolytica from non-pathogenic intestinal amoebae?
A. Shape of the cyst
B. Nuclear morphology
C. Presence of glycogen mass
D. Number of chromatoid bars
Ans: B

Q5. A contact lens user develops keratitis. Corneal scraping shows double-walled cysts with wrinkled outer walls. The causative organism is:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Naegleria fowleri
C. Acanthamoeba species
D. Entamoeba histolytica
Ans: C

Q6. A rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis following exposure to pond water is most commonly caused by:
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Naegleria fowleri
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Plasmodium falciparum
Ans: B

Q7. Which statement is FALSE regarding Balantidium coli?
A. It is a protozoan parasite
B. Humans acquire infection via cysts
C. It commonly causes liver abscess
D. It is the largest intestinal protozoa
Ans: C

Q8. In which parasite does the number of nuclei remain the same in trophozoite and cyst forms?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Balantidium coli
Ans: D

Q9. Which characteristic is correct for Trichomonas vaginalis?
A. Forms infective cysts
B. Possesses sucking disc
C. Thrives well in moist environments
D. Has posterior flagella only
Ans: C

Q10. Chronic Chagas disease primarily affects which organs?
A. Liver and spleen
B. Lungs and kidneys
C. Heart and gastrointestinal tract
D. Brain and spinal cord
Ans: C

Previous Year Questions on Parasitology

Here are some Previous Year Questions on parasitology. Students can solve them for better preparation.

Q1. A patient presents with abdominal cramps and loose stools without fever. Stool microscopy shows invasive trophozoites. Diagnosis is most likely:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Escherichia coli
D. Shigella species
Ans: B

Q2. Flagellated protozoa with jerky motility seen on wet mount most likely indicates:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Plasmodium species
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
Ans: C

Q3. Oval cysts detected in stool with two nuclei and median bodies suggest infection by:
A. Balantidium coli
B. Entamoeba dispar
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Taenia solium
Ans: C

Q4. An immunocompromised patient with chronic diarrhea shows 4–6 μm acid-fast oocysts. The most common cause is:
A. Isospora species
B. Cyclospora species
C. Cryptosporidium species
D. Strongyloides species
Ans: C

Q5. Large oval cysts (10–30 μm) positive on modified acid-fast stain in an HIV patient point toward:
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Cystoisospora belli
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia
Ans: B

Q6. Peripheral smear showing enlarged RBCs with Schüffner’s dots is characteristic of:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Babesia species
Ans: C

Q7. Crescent-shaped gametocytes are a diagnostic feature of:
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
Ans: B

Q8. Relapsing malaria due to hypnozoites is commonly seen in infection with:
A. P. falciparum and P. malariae
B. P. vivax and P. ovale
C. P. falciparum and P. vivax
D. P. malariae and P. ovale
Ans: B

Q9. Which parasite uses a ventral sucking disc to attach to intestinal mucosa?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Balantidium coli
D. Cryptosporidium
Ans: B

Q10. Presence of nuclei extending up to the tail tip in microfilaria is seen in:
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Onchocerca volvulus
C. Loa loa
D. Brugia malayi
Ans: D

How to Use Important Solutions for NEET PG Parasitology 

Effective use of these important questions can significantly boost your NEET PG preparation. Follow these steps for optimal learning:

• Review Concepts First: Before attempting the questions, ensure a solid grasp of the underlying Parasitology concepts. Understanding the basics makes solving problems easier.

• Practice Regularly: Solve these questions systematically. Regular practice reinforces knowledge and improves speed and accuracy. This helps with different types of Previous Year Questions on Parasitology.

• Analyze Solutions: Do not just check the correct answer. Understand why an answer is correct and why others are incorrect. This deepens your conceptual understanding.

• Identify Weaknesses: Note down topics or question types where you consistently make mistakes. Focus extra study time on these areas to turn weaknesses into strengths.

• Simulate Exam Conditions: For MCQs, try solving them under timed conditions to improve your time management skills for the actual NEET PG exam.