Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET with Answers and Explanations

Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET help you revise important topics such as fractures, fracture management, bone grafting, and orthopaedic emergencies. Practising questions with answers and explanations can help you understand clinical concepts and identify weak areas. These questions also help you apply your knowledge to clinical scenarios and improve your problem-solving skills.

This practice set includes 10 important Orthopaedics MCQs covering fracture types, complications, stress fractures, open fractures, and other high-yield topics. Read each question carefully, select the correct answer, and review the explanation to understand the concept behind it. Regular practice can help you revise key topics, strengthen your basics, and prepare more effectively for the INI-CET exam.

Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET

Orthopaedics is an important subject for INI-CET preparation. Questions may cover fracture classification, bone healing, trauma management, joint injuries, and complications such as compartment syndrome and fat embolism.

Solving Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET is a useful way to revise these topics and test your understanding. Instead of memorising facts alone, try to understand why an answer is correct and why the other options are incorrect.

Here are 10 practice questions on fracture management and its complications, along with answers and explanations.

Q1. Which of the following is a pathognomonic sign of a long bone fracture?

A. Pain on movement
B. Swelling
C. Deformity
D. Abnormal mobility

Correct Answer: D. Abnormal mobility

Explanation: Abnormal mobility at a site where there is no normal joint is a classic sign of a fracture. It occurs when the continuity of the bone is disrupted. However, you should not deliberately test for abnormal mobility in a suspected fracture because it may cause further injury.

Pain, swelling, and deformity can also occur in dislocations and other musculoskeletal injuries. Therefore, these findings are not specific to fractures.

Q2. All of the following conditions can cause a pathological fracture, except:

A. Gaucher disease
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Fabry disease

Correct Answer: D. Fabry disease

Explanation: Pathological fractures occur when a bone becomes weak due to an underlying disease and breaks with minimal trauma or, sometimes, without significant trauma.

Osteogenesis imperfecta affects type I collagen formation and causes fragile bones with recurrent fractures. Gaucher disease can affect bone strength, while hyperparathyroidism can increase bone resorption. Fabry disease is an X-linked lysosomal storage disorder that typically causes features such as angiokeratomas, neuropathic pain, and kidney involvement rather than being a recognised common cause of pathological fractures.

Q3. You are working as a medical officer in the Indian Army. An army recruit presents to you with complaints of pain in the right foot. He joined his training 6 months back. His X-ray is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pathological fracture
B. March fracture
C. Runner's fracture
D. Greenstick fracture

Correct Answer: B. March fracture

Explanation: A March fracture is a type of stress fracture that commonly affects the second or third metatarsal. It occurs due to repeated loading, especially when a person suddenly increases walking, running or marching activity.

Stress fractures develop when repetitive loading exceeds the bone's ability to repair itself. Early X-rays may appear normal, while MRI can detect stress injuries earlier.

Management depends on the site and severity of the fracture. It usually includes activity modification and a gradual return to exercise. Suspected femoral neck stress fractures require urgent assessment because they can progress to complete fractures.

Q4.  A teenager is brought to the casualty after sustaining a wrist injury during a sports meet. His X-ray is given below. The orthopedic surgeon tries to reduce the fracture fragments by using traction on soft tissues around the bones. What is this technique known as?

A. Callotaxis
B. Ligamentotaxis
C. Distraction osteogenesis
D. Arthrodesis

Correct Answer: B. Ligamentotaxis

Explanation: Ligamentotaxis uses tension in the surrounding ligaments, joint capsule, and soft tissues to help align fracture fragments. It is particularly useful in selected fractures, including some distal radius fractures, when traction helps restore alignment.

Callotaxis and distraction osteogenesis involve gradual bone lengthening through new bone formation. Arthrodesis is the surgical fusion of a joint to eliminate movement.

Q5. Hanging cast is used to treat which of the following?

A. Olecranon fracture
B. Malgaigne's fracture
C. Humeral shaft fracture
D. Colles' fracture

Correct Answer: C. Humeral shaft fracture

Explanation: A hanging cast is a traditional method used for selected humeral shaft fractures. The weight of the cast and gravity provide traction to help maintain alignment.

However, the treatment depends on the fracture pattern, displacement, associated injuries, and the patient's condition. Many humeral shaft fractures can also be managed with functional bracing, while some require surgery.

Q6. A 40-year-old man presents with a fracture of the right tibia following an RTA. On examination, the wound is extensive with peri-osteal stripping and visible bone and it is highly contaminated. His distal pulses are felt well. According to the Gustilo-Anderson classification, this injury would be classified as type:

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIIA
D. Type IIIB

Correct Answer: D. Type IIIB

Explanation: Gustilo-Anderson classification is used to describe open fractures.

• Type I: A clean wound, usually smaller than 1 cm, with limited soft-tissue damage.

• Type II: A larger wound, generally more than 1 cm, without extensive soft-tissue damage.

• Type IIIA: Extensive injury, but adequate soft-tissue coverage of the bone remains possible.

• Type IIIB: Extensive soft-tissue loss, periosteal stripping and exposed bone, often requiring flap coverage.

• Type IIIC: An open fracture associated with an arterial injury requiring repair.

The degree of tissue damage and contamination matters more than wound size alone. Open fractures require urgent assessment, antibiotics, wound management and appropriate surgical treatment.

7. In which of the following fractures is surgical management necessary for optimum functional results?

A. Clavicle fracture B. Distal radius fracture C. Fibula fracture D. Monteggia fracture

Correct Answer: D. Monteggia fracture

Explanation: A Monteggia fracture involves a fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head. Surgical treatment is generally required in adults to restore alignment and achieve good functional results. If left untreated or inadequately managed, it can lead to restricted forearm rotation and other complications.

• Option A: Most clavicle fractures can be managed conservatively, depending on displacement and other factors.

• Option B: Many distal radius fractures can be treated with closed reduction and casting. Surgery may be needed for unstable or significantly displaced fractures.

• Option C: Isolated fibula fractures usually heal with non-surgical treatment.

8. A patient undergoes bone grafting after losing a segment of bone due to an open fracture. Which of the following is the best material to fill the defect?

A. Freeze-dried allograft B. rhBMP-7 C. Calcium phosphate D. Autologous bone graft

Correct Answer: D. Autologous bone graft

Explanation: An autologous bone graft is taken from the patient's own body and is considered the gold standard for many bone grafting procedures. It supports bone formation through three main processes: osteogenesis, osteoinduction and osteoconduction.

• Option A: Freeze-dried allografts are obtained from donors. They mainly provide a scaffold for new bone growth.

• Option B: rhBMP-7 stimulates bone formation but does not provide structural support on its own.

• Option C: Calcium phosphate is a synthetic bone substitute that supports bone growth but may not be suitable on its own for large segmental defects.

9. A 7-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling around his elbow after falling on an outstretched hand. An X-ray shows a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Which blood vessel is most likely to be injured?

A. Brachial artery B. Radial artery C. Axillary artery D. Ulnar artery

Correct Answer: A. Brachial artery

Explanation: A supracondylar fracture of the humerus can injure the brachial artery because of its close anatomical relationship with the distal humerus. Signs of vascular injury include a weak or absent pulse, a pale or cold hand and delayed capillary refill.

A suspected vascular injury requires urgent assessment. Treatment depends on limb perfusion and the findings of the clinical examination.

• Option B: The radial artery runs along the lateral side of the forearm.

• Option C: The axillary artery is located in the axilla.

• Option D: The ulnar artery runs along the medial side of the forearm.

10. Which fracture is most commonly associated with acute compartment syndrome in adults?

A. Femur fracture B. Forearm fracture C. Tibial shaft fracture D. Humerus fracture

Correct Answer: C. Tibial shaft fracture

Explanation: Tibial shaft fractures are among the most common fracture-related causes of acute compartment syndrome in adults. The condition develops when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases and reduces blood flow to the tissues.

Severe pain, pain on passive stretching, swelling, tingling and altered sensation are important warning signs. Acute compartment syndrome is a surgical emergency and requires prompt assessment.

• Option A: Femur fractures are associated with complications such as fat embolism and deep vein thrombosis.

• Option B: Forearm fractures can also cause compartment syndrome, but tibial shaft fractures are a classic and common association.

• Option D: Humerus fractures are more commonly associated with nerve injuries, depending on the fracture location.

Attempt More INI-CET Orthopaedics MCQs at PW MedEd

Practise more INI-CET Orthopaedics MCQs with PW MedEd to test your knowledge, revise important concepts and identify topics that need more attention. Regular practice improves accuracy and prepares for the exam with greater confidence.

Download the PW MedEd app to access medical exam preparation resources and continue your INI-CET practice.

Benefits of Practising Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET

Regular practice can help you prepare for the Orthopaedics section more effectively.

• Revise important concepts: Questions cover fracture patterns, classifications, bone grafts and complications.

• Improve clinical reasoning: Case-based MCQs help you connect symptoms, examination findings, and investigations with a likely diagnosis.

• Identify weak topics: Reviewing incorrect answers helps you decide which concepts need more revision.

• Improve accuracy: Understanding why distractor options are incorrect can help reduce avoidable mistakes.

• Practise time management: Timed question sets help you become more comfortable answering MCQs under exam conditions.

• Strengthen retention: Revisiting questions after a few days helps reinforce facts and clinical concepts.

How to Prepare Orthopaedics for INI-CET Using MCQs

Practising Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET can help you revise important concepts and improve your clinical reasoning. Follow these steps to make your practice more effective:

1. Revise one topic at a time

Start with high-yield topics such as fractures, fracture healing, bone tumours, nerve injuries, joint dislocations, and orthopaedic emergencies. Revise the basics before attempting a large question set.

2. Attempt questions before checking the answers

Try to solve each question independently. For clinical scenarios, identify the important clues first, such as the patient's age, mechanism of injury, examination findings, and time since the injury.

3. Read every explanation

Do not stop after finding the correct option. Understand why it is correct and why the alternatives are less appropriate. This is especially useful for questions on fracture classifications and complications.

4. Maintain a record of incorrect answers

Keep a short revision list of questions you answered incorrectly or guessed. Include the key fact, the reason for your mistake, and the correct concept. Revise this list regularly.

5. Practise topic-wise question banks

You can use the PW MedEd Orthopaedics Question Bank to practise questions topic by topic. This can help you identify gaps in your preparation and revise specific areas.

6. Revise and retest

Attempt the same questions again after a few days. If you still struggle with a topic, return to your notes or textbook before moving to another topic.

Orthopaedics MCQs for INI-CET can help you revise important concepts and improve your clinical reasoning. Focus on fracture management, complications, classifications, and case-based questions. Attempt each question before checking the answer, read the explanation carefully, and revisit your mistakes regularly.

Related Resources: 

• INI CET Online Coaching

• INI-CET admit card 

• INI CET Application Form

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