
CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam Analysis 2025: The CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam has been successfully conducted, and candidates are eager to know the detailed CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam Analysis 2025, Questions Asked, and attempted.
This Mathematics section plays a crucial role for aspirants aiming to join the Indian Armed Forces through the UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination. Let us break down the CDS 2 2025 Maths exam review into the difficulty level, type of questions asked, and the number of good attempts.
Considered the toughest section in the CDS 2 2025 exam analysis, with lengthy questions in Trigonometry, Arithmetic, and Geometry. Speed and accuracy were a challenge for most candidates.
CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam Analysis, 14 Sept, reveals that this year’s pattern was similar to previous CDS exams, but with slightly challenging Mathematics questions. This makes the CDS 2 difficulty level 2025 overall moderate to difficult, depending on the preparation level of candidates.
CDS 2 2025 Maths section-wise analysis 2025 help candidates to know the number of questions and the weightage of each section. Here is a section-wise breakup of the CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam Questions Asked and Attempted:
| CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam: Topic-wise Weightage | |||
|
Topic |
No. of Questions |
Difficulty Level |
Good Attempts |
|
Arithmetic (Percentages, Profit & Loss, Ratio) |
22–25 |
Moderate |
17–20 |
|
Algebra (Equations, Identities) |
15–18 |
Easy to Moderate |
12–14 |
|
Geometry |
20–22 |
Difficult |
14–16 |
|
Mensuration |
12–14 |
Moderate |
9–11 |
|
Trigonometry |
12–15 |
Moderate to Difficult |
9–12 |
|
Statistics & Data Interpretation |
7–9 |
Easy |
6–7 |
Based on student feedback, the good attempts in the CDS 2 2025 Maths Exam are estimated to be 65–72 questions with high accuracy.
Easy Questions: 30–35
Moderate Questions: 40–45
Difficult Questions: 20–25
Candidates who maintained accuracy with time efficiency are likely to score well above the CDS 2 2025 Maths expected cut off.
Q. Let p(x) be a polynomial. When p(x) is divided by (x-1), it leaves 2 as the remainder. When p(x) is divided by (x-2), it leaves 1 as the remainder. What is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (x-1) (x-2)?
a. 3
b. -3
c. 3-x
d. -2x Ans: c. 3-x
Q. Let p and q be natural numbers such that q > p. What is the largest value of p such that q² - 5p - 4 is negative?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6 Ans: a. 3
Q. Let x and y be natural numbers each less than 20, such that x, y, x + y, and x - y are prime numbers. How many such combinations of (x, y, x + y, x - y) are possible?
a. one
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four Ans: a. one
Q. If (x + !) (x + p) (x² + p²) = (X²)² - 1, then what is the value of p?
a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. cannot be determined
Q. If n is a natural number less than 7, then what is the number of values of n for which (12n + n) and (8n + 1) are relatively prime?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3 Ans: a. 6
Q. Let x = n(n +1) (n + 2), where n is an even natural number. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. x is always divisible by 48.
II. x² is always divisible by 144.
Select the answer using the code given below.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II Ans: b. II only
Q. Is 8sinθ - cosθ = 4, where 0 < θ < Π/2, then what is cosecθ equal to?
a. 1
b. 3/2
c. 5/3
d 2 Ans: c. 5/3
Q. An Amount of Rs. 10,000 is borrowed at 10% per annum on compound Interest for 3 years, compounded annually, and paid back in 3 equal annual installments during these years. What is the amount of each installment (approximately)?
a. Rs. 4,437
b. Rs. 4.237
c. Rs. 4,021
d. Rs. 3,811 Ans: c. Rs. 4,021
Q. What is the solution of the inequalities 5x + 3 < 8x - p and 2x + 20 > 5x + 2?
a. 4 < x < 6
b. 3 < x < 5
c. x < 3 or x > 5
d. x < 4 or x > 6 Ans: a. 4 < x < 6
Q. A shopkeeper gives three consecutive discounts 10%, 20% and 25% after which he sells the article at a profit of 8% on the cost price. Has he sold the article after the first discount, how much profit would he have got?
a. 20 %
b. 40 %
c. 50 %
d. None of the above Ans: d. None of the above
Q. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are consecutive integers. If the volume of the cuboid is 336 cubic units, then what is the total surface area of the cuboid?
(a) 288 square units
(b) 292 square units
(c) 296 square units
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data Ans: (b) 292 square units
Q. In a circle of radius 14 cm, APB is a shorter arc and P is the midpoint of the arc. Let C be the midpoint of the chord AB and PC = 7 cm. What is the length of the chord AP?
(а) 3.5 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 10.5 cm
(d) 14 cm Ans: (d) 14 cm
Q. Two poles of heights 10 m and 15 m are 25 m apart. What is the height of the point of intersection of the lines joining the tip of each pole to the foot of the other pole?
(a) 4.8 m
(b) 5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 6.4 m Ans: (c) 6 m
Q. ABC is a triangle right angled at B. Further, (AB+BC) exceeds AC by 10 units. If the perimeter of the triangle is 60 units, then what is the area of the triangle
(a) 75 square units 0
(b) 100 square units
(c) 125 square units
(d) 150 square units ANs: (d) 150 square units
Q. Two poles are situated 24 m apart and their heights differ by 10 m. What is the distance between their tips?
(a) 25 m
(b) 26 m
(c) 30 m
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data Ans: (b) 26 m
The CDS 2 2025 question paper with answers to ensure transparency in the evaluation process. By going through the CDS 2 2025 solution PDF, candidates can identify mistakes, analyze question patterns, and prepare more effectively for the next attempt if required. Click on the below link to download the CDS 2 2025 Questions Paper PDF.
CDS 2 2025 Questions Paper PDF- Click to Download
The CDS 2 2025 Maths video analysis of the CDS 2025 is live now. In these sessions, faculty break down question types, difficulty levels, expected cutoffs, and suggested answers. Watching a CDS 2025 video analysis will help candidates cross-check their answers and also learn exam-oriented strategies.
