PSM Clinical and Non-Clinical Questions for FMGE

Preparing for the Foreign Medical Graduate Examination (FMGE) can be challenging due to its vast syllabus and conceptual depth. One of the scoring and high-yield subjects in the FMGE exam is Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM). This subject includes both clinical and non-clinical questions that test your understanding of public health, epidemiology, vaccines, biostatistics, and national programs.

Below is a compiled list of FMGE-relevant PSM questions along with explanations to help you strengthen your preparation and improve your conceptual clarity. 

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Clinical and Non-Clinical PSM MCQs for FMGE

Prepare for the FMGE with a comprehensive set of Clinical and Non-Clinical PSM MCQs, designed to test your knowledge and enhance your exam readiness. These MCQs cover key topics and concepts essential for success in the exam.

Q1. Which of the following microbiological tests confirms recent fecal contamination of water?

a) Total Coliform Test
b) Fecal streptococci
c) Clostridium perfringens Test
d) Heterotrophic Plate Count

Answer: b) Fecal streptococci
Explanation: Fecal streptococci are more specific indicators for recent fecal contamination of water compared to total coliforms.

Q2. McArdle’s Index is used to measure:

a) Cooling power of air
b) Heat stress
c) Predictable 4-hour sweat rate
d) Corrected effective temperature

Answer: c) Predictable 4-hour sweat rate
Explanation: McArdle’s Index helps assess thermal comfort by measuring the expected sweat loss over 4 hours.

Q3. India is currently in which phase of the demographic transition model?

a) Early expanding
b) Late expanding
c) Low stationary
d) Declining

Answer: b) Late expanding
Explanation: India has declining birth and death rates, indicating a late expanding phase.

Q4. What does DALY measure?

a) Years lost to disability alone
b) Years lost to death alone
c) Years lost to disability and death
d) None of the above

Answer: c) Years lost to disability and death
Explanation: DALY (Disability-Adjusted Life Years) represents the total burden of disease due to premature death and disability.

Q5. Choose the correct set of primary and secondary prevention examples:

a) BCG for TB – Primary
b) BCG for bladder cancer – Secondary
c) OCP for contraception – Primary
d) OCP for PCOD – Secondary

Options:
a,c
a,b,c,d
b,c,d
a,c,d

Answer: b) a,b,c,d
Explanation: Primary prevention prevents the occurrence of disease, while secondary prevention involves early diagnosis and treatment.

Q6. Difference between OPV and IPV is best described by:

a) OPV is killed, IPV is live
b) OPV provides only humoral immunity
c) OPV provides intestinal and humoral immunity
d) Both have equal VAPP risk

Answer: c) OPV provides intestinal and humoral immunity
Explanation: OPV provides both mucosal and systemic immunity, crucial during epidemics.

Q7. Most common cause of death in measles is:

a) Protein-losing enteropathy
b) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c) Pneumonia
d) Otitis Media

Answer: c) Pneumonia
Explanation: Pneumonia is the leading complication and cause of mortality in measles.

Q8. A child in rural UP with altered sensorium during monsoon most likely has:

a) Bacterial meningitis; Blood culture
b) Herpes encephalitis; PCR
c) Japanese Encephalitis; IgM ELISA
d) Dengue; NS1 test

Answer: c) Japanese Encephalitis; IgM ELISA
Explanation: IgM ELISA is the confirmatory test, especially in endemic rural areas.

Q9. A child with a superficial dog bite needs which of the following?

a) IM 0.1 ml vaccine on days 0, 3, 7, 28
b) 70% RIG around wound
c) Vaccine in anterolateral thigh
d) 2-site ID regimen on 0, 3, 7, 28

Answer: a) IM 0.1 ml vaccine on days 0, 3, 7, 28 is not recommended
Correct Answer: d) 2-site ID regimen
Explanation: The preferred method is ID with 2-2-2-2 doses over 4 visits.

Q10. Unvaccinated asymptomatic contact of a diphtheria patient should receive:

a) Diphtheria toxoid booster
b) Diphtheria antitoxin + full toxoid course
c) Only prophylactic antibiotics
d) No intervention

Answer: b) Diphtheria antitoxin + full toxoid course
Explanation: Both passive (DAT) and active immunization are necessary.

Q11. In a positively skewed distribution:

a) Mean < Median < Mode
b) Mean > Median > Mode
c) Mean = Median > Mode
d) All are equal

Answer: b) Mean > Median > Mode
Explanation: Right-tailed distributions pull the mean towards the right.

Q12. Celsius and Fahrenheit are examples of which scale?

a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio

Answer: c) Interval
Explanation: Interval scales have equal differences but no absolute zero.

Q13. Match the following pneumoconiosis diseases with industries:

• Silicosis – Mining

• Asbestosis – Construction

• Byssinosis – Textile

• Anthracosis – Coal mining
  
  

Correct Match: 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Answer: b) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Q14. PPE like gloves and goggles are discarded in which color bin?

a) Blue
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) White

Answer: c) Red
Explanation: Red bin is for contaminated plastic items like gloves and face shields.

Q15. Correct sequence of the disaster management cycle is:

a) Impact → Response → Rehab → Reconstruction → Mitigation → Preparedness
b) Impact → Mitigation → Response → Preparedness → Rehab
c) Impact → Rehab → Reconstruction → Response
d) Impact → Response → Mitigation

Answer: a) Impact → Response → Rehabilitation → Reconstruction → Mitigation → Preparedness
Explanation: It’s a continuous cycle of pre- and post-disaster activities.

Q16. How many postnatal visits are recommended for home delivery?

a) 4 visits (Days 3, 7, 14, 42)
b) 5 visits (Days 1, 2, 3, 7, 42)
c) 6 visits (Days 1 to 21 + 42)
d) 7 visits (Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 21, 28, 42)

Answer: d) 7 visits
Explanation: For home delivery, 7 scheduled postnatal visits are essential.

Q17. Use of Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) represents which principle?

a) Appropriate Technology
b) Community Participation
c) Intersectoral Coordination
d) Equitable Distribution

Answer: a) Appropriate Technology
Explanation: VVMs ensure safe vaccine administration using simple tech.

Q18. Which organization publishes the Health Index in India?

a) MoHFW
b) NITI Aayog
c) ICMR
d) WHO

Answer: b) NITI Aayog
Explanation: NITI Aayog evaluates health indicators and publishes India's Health Index annually.

Q19. Delphi technique is best described as:

a) Group discussion in person
b) Naturalistic observation
c) Expert panel via multiple rounds of questionnaires
d) Big data statistical method

Answer: c) Expert panel via multiple rounds of questionnaires
Explanation: Delphi method is used for building consensus in health research.

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