Radiology Video-Based Questions for NEET PG 2026 Exam

Radiology plays an important role in NEET PG, where candidates are expected to interpret clinical images, recognise important imaging findings, and correlate them with clinical presentations. Developing a systematic approach to image interpretation can improve diagnostic accuracy and confidence while solving radiology-based questions.

Radiology Video-Based Questions for NEET PG 2026 Exam cover important imaging cases, highlight characteristic radiological findings, and demonstrate how clinical correlation supports the correct diagnosis. Reviewing these cases can help candidates strengthen their observation skills, improve diagnostic reasoning, and prepare more effectively for image-based questions in the examination.

Important Radiology Concepts for Video-Based Questions

Video-based radiology questions may assess more than the ability to identify a diagnosis from a single image. Candidates should also be familiar with commonly tested ultrasound signs and artefacts, understand the role of different investigations, and interpret radiological images in the context of clinical findings. Image-based questions may involve ultrasound, CT, or MRI images, requiring careful observation of key findings to arrive at the most appropriate diagnosis.

Key points covered:

• High-yield ultrasound signs and artefacts commonly assessed in image-based questions.

• Interpretation of radiological investigations with the clinical presentation.

• Integration of radiology images with clinical scenarios to support diagnostic reasoning.

• Careful evaluation of static CT and MRI images by identifying important radiological findings.

Radiology Video-Based Questions For NEET PG

Radiology Video-Based Questions include a series of image-based clinical cases that demonstrate how imaging findings support the diagnosis. Each case highlights characteristic radiological features, explains their clinical significance, and shows how careful image interpretation helps identify the most appropriate answer.

Question 1: A 2-month-old infant presents with recurrent bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

B. Midgut volvulus due to intestinal malrotation

C. Intussusception

D. Duodenal atresia

Correct Answer: B. Midgut volvulus due to intestinal malrotation

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The ultrasound image demonstrates the "whirlpool sign," caused by the superior mesenteric vein and mesentery wrapping around the superior mesenteric artery.

• Indication: Recurrent bilious vomiting in a young infant accompanied by the ultrasound whirlpool sign is a classic presentation of midgut volvulus secondary to intestinal malrotation, which requires urgent surgical evaluation.

Question 2: A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks of gestation is referred for a detailed fetal anomaly scan after routine obstetric ultrasound demonstrated ventriculomegaly and cardiomegaly. Fetal echocardiography reveals high-output cardiac failure. Targeted foetal neurosonography is done. Based on the imaging findings shown in the video, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Arachnoid cyst

B. Dandy-Walker malformation

C. Vein of Galen aneurysmal malformation

D. Porencephalic cyst

Correct Answer: C. Vein of Galen aneurysmal malformation

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The fetal neurosonogram shows a well-defined, midline, cystic-appearing anechoic lesion posterior to the third ventricle with turbulent high-velocity arteriovenous flow on Doppler (characteristic of a Vein of Galen Aneurysmal Malformation - VGAM).

• Indication: VGAM is a severe arteriovenous malformation in the fetal brain. The massive arteriovenous shunting leads to high-output cardiac failure, cardiomegaly, and secondary ventriculomegaly in utero or neonatally.

Question 3: A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset severe left flank pain radiating to the groin. The pain is colicky in nature and is associated with nausea and one episode of vomiting. Urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria. Renal function tests are within normal limits. 

Based on the ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Blood clot within the ureter

B. Transitional cell carcinoma of the ureter

C. Distal ureteric calculus

D. Ureterocele

Correct Answer: C. Distal ureteric calculus

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The ultrasound image demonstrates Colour Doppler showing a "twinkle artefact" (a rapidly changing colour signal behind a dense reflective object) at the vesicoureteric junction, which is a key sign of a calculus.

• Indication: Severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin with microscopic hematuria is the classic clinical presentation of renal colic due to an obstructing ureteric stone (calculus), most commonly lodged in the distal ureter/vesicoureteric junction.

Question 4: Which of the following statements regarding Testicular Torsion is correct?

A. Manual detorsion is the gold standard definitive treatment

B. Salvage rate within 6 hours of onset is >90%

C. Absent testicular arterial flow on Doppler is mandatory to diagnose early torsion

D. Salvage rate remains around 50% even after 24 hours

Correct Answer: B. Salvage rate within 6 hours of onset is >90%

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The slide highlights key clinical and radiological features of Testicular Torsion.

• Indication: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency. Immediate surgical exploration with orchidopexy is the gold standard treatment. Testicular salvage rate is high (>90%) if detorsion occurs within 6 hours of onset, but drops significantly to very poor (<10%) after 24 hours. Early or partial torsion may still demonstrate arterial flow, so a whirlpool sign with acute scrotal pain should be considered torsion until proven otherwise.

Question 5: A 62-year-old man undergoes transfemoral arterial catheterisation for coronary angiography. Three days later, he presents with a painful swelling in the right groin. Based on the Doppler ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Femoral artery thrombosis

B. Femoral arteriovenous fistula

C. Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm

D. Groin hematoma

Correct Answer: C. Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The colour Doppler ultrasound demonstrates the classic "Yin-Yang sign" (swirling colour flow within a sac communicating with the underlying femoral artery), which is pathognomonic for a pseudoaneurysm.

• Indication: Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm is a well-known vascular complication following transfemoral arterial catheterisation. It occurs when blood leaks through a defect in the arterial wall and forms a pulsating sac confined by surrounding fibrous tissue.

Question 6: A 26-year-old primigravida undergoes a routine anomaly scan at 20 weeks of gestation. Maternal serum screening performed earlier in pregnancy revealed significantly elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels. She has no history of diabetes or teratogenic drug exposure. Based on the fetal ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gastroschisis

B. Myelomeningocele

C. Congenital dermal sinus

D. Omphalocele

Correct Answer: B. Myelomeningocele

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The sagittal fetal ultrasound shows a cystic expansion protruding posteriorly through a defect in the lumbosacral spine, representing a neural tube defect with herniation of meninges and spinal cord elements (Myelomeningocele).

• Indication: Open neural tube defects like myelomeningocele allow fetal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) to leak directly into the amniotic fluid and maternal circulation, leading to significantly elevated maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) levels.

Question 7: A 42-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, especially after consuming fatty meals. The pain lasts for 1–2 hours and is associated with nausea. She is afebrile, and laboratory investigations are within normal limits. Based on the ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gallbladder polyp

B. Gallbladder carcinoma

C. Cholelithiasis

D. Biliary sludge

Correct Answer: C. Cholelithiasis

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The ultrasound image demonstrates a hyperechoic structure (gallstone) inside the gallbladder lumen casting a distinct posterior acoustic shadow.

• Indication: Recurrent right upper quadrant pain triggered by fatty meals (biliary colic) combined with an echogenic focus casting posterior acoustic shadowing on ultrasound is the classic clinical and radiological presentation of cholelithiasis (gallstones).

Question 8: A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain and spotting per vaginum for the past 2 days. She reports 7 weeks of amenorrhea. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Serum beta-hCG levels are elevated. On examination, there is mild adnexal tenderness. Based on the ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Corpus luteum cyst

B. Tubal ectopic pregnancy

C. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst

D. Endometrioma

Correct Answer: B. Tubal ectopic pregnancy

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The colour Doppler ultrasound demonstrates an extrauterine/adnexal ring-like mass containing a gestational sac with a surrounding hypervascular peripheral rim, known as the "ring of fire" sign.

• Indication: Lower abdominal pain, per vaginal spotting, amenorrhea, and a positive pregnancy test with the classic adnexal "ring of fire" sign on Doppler ultrasound strongly point to a tubal ectopic pregnancy.

Question 9: A 58-year-old woman presents with acute-onset swelling and pain of the left lower limb for the past 3 days. She underwent total knee replacement surgery 2 weeks ago and has been relatively immobile since then. On examination, the left calf is swollen and tender compared to the right side. Based on the ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ruptured Baker cyst

B. Cellulitis

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D. Hematoma

Correct Answer: C. Deep vein thrombosis

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The venous compression ultrasound demonstrates a non-compressible deep vein lumen due to the presence of an intraluminal clot (thrombus).

• Indication: Major orthopaedic procedures (such as total knee replacement) combined with post-operative immobility are major risk factors for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT), classically presenting with unilateral lower limb swelling and calf tenderness.

Question 10: A 19-year-old man presents with abdominal pain that initially started around the umbilicus and later migrated to the right iliac fossa. Laboratory investigations reveal leukocytosis with neutrophilia. Based on the ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mesenteric adenitis

B. Acute appendicitis

C. Crohn disease involving the terminal ileum

D. Acute cholecystitis

Correct Answer: B. Acute appendicitis

Explanation

• Procedure Shown: The ultrasound image shows a non-compressible, blind-ending tubular structure in the right iliac fossa with an outer diameter $>6\text{ mm}$ and surrounding hyperechoic inflamed mesenteric fat.

• Indication: Pain starting periumbilically and migrating to the right iliac fossa accompanied by neutrophilic leukocytosis is the classic clinical history for acute appendicitis.

Question 11: A 24-year-old primigravida undergoes a routine first-trimester anomaly scan at 12 weeks of gestation. Maternal serum screening performed earlier showed markedly elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels. There is no significant medical history; however, the patient did not receive periconceptional folic acid supplementation. Based on the fetal ultrasound video shown, what is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Encephalocele

• B. Anencephaly

• C. Holoprosencephaly

• D. Dandy-Walker malformation

Correct Answer: B. Anencephaly

Explanation:

• Ultrasound Findings: The first-trimester ultrasound demonstrates the absence of the cranial vault (calvaria) and brain tissue above the orbits, presenting as the classic "mickey mouse" sign or "frog-eye" appearance on coronal views.

• Clinical Correlation:

• Anencephaly is a severe open neural tube defect (NTD) resulting from the failure of the anterior neuropore to close around week 4 of development.

• Lack of periconceptional folic acid supplementation is a major known risk factor for neural tube defects.

• Open NTDs allow fetal alpha-fetoprotein to leak into the amniotic fluid, leading to markedly elevated maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) levels.

Key Learning Points 

Some important takeaways from the discussion include:

• Careful observation of radiological images is essential before selecting an answer.

• Clinical history should always be interpreted alongside imaging findings.

• Characteristic imaging features help differentiate between similar conditions.

• Understanding the reasoning behind each diagnosis is as important as identifying the correct option.

• Practising image-based questions can improve confidence in radiology interpretation.