RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025 (Out), 29 April, Check Good Attempts, Expected Cut Off, Question Asked

Nursing Exams Courses

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025 Overview

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam is a computer-based test (CBT) designed to assess candidates on their professional nursing knowledge along with general aptitude. This exam plays a crucial role in the recruitment process conducted by the Indian Railways to fill vacant posts in its medical units. The selection process includes the CBT, followed by document verification and a medical fitness test. In the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025, candidates can expect a detailed breakdown of question patterns, difficulty levels, and subject-wise weightage, helping future aspirants prepare more effectively for upcoming cycles.

Important Dates for RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam 2025

To help candidates stay on track with the recruitment process, here are the key dates related to the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam 2025. A clear understanding of these dates also supports better planning for those awaiting the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025, which provides detailed insights into the exam pattern, difficulty level, and subject-wise performance trends.

 RRB Nursing Superintendent Answer Key 2025

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025 Difficulty Level

As per feedback from candidates and experts, the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam 2025 difficulty level are available here. The RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025 will provide a comprehensive review of the exam, including insights into question trends, overall toughness, and candidate performance. Below is the breakdown of section-wise difficulty:

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis (Memory Based Question Paper Solution) Live

The RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis on YouTube based on memory-based question paper solutions is being conducted live to help candidates understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and types of questions asked. This live analysis is curated by experts. Through real-time discussion of memory-based questions shared by candidates, the session provides accurate insights, expected cut-off trends, and key takeaways for future aspirants. It is especially helpful for those preparing for upcoming nursing recruitment exams under the Railway Recruitment Board.

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Pattern 2025

As observed in the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025, the exam pattern for the RRB Nursing Superintendent 2025 remained the same as in previous years. It included 100 objective-type questions to be answered in 90 minutes.

• Negative Marking: 1/3 mark was deducted for every incorrect answer.

• Mode of Exam: Online (CBT)

• Language Options: English and regional languages
  
  

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam 2025 Cut Off

The RRB Nursing Superintentdent cut off 2025 marks are the minimum scores candidates must secure to qualify for the next stage. The official cut-off will be released category-wise by RRB after the result declaration. However, based on factors such as exam difficulty and the number of candidates—both of which are considered in the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025—the expected cut-off is as follows:

Note: These are tentative cut-off marks and may vary slightly based on actual results.

RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025: Good Attempts (Expected)

Based on the level of difficulty and average performance observed in the RRB Nursing Superintendent Exam Analysis 2025, here is an estimate of the number of good attempts that could increase chances of qualifying:

Candidates who attempted around 75+ questions with accuracy are likely to have a good chance of clearing the CBT round.

RRB Nursing Exam Analysis 2025 - Question asked on 29 April 2025 

Q1: What disease occurs in children due to vitamin D deficiency?

Answer: Rickets
Vitamin D deficiency weakens bones in children, leading to rickets, a common and preventable disease.

Options:
A. Hemolysis
B. Muscular Dystrophy
C. Rickets ✅
D. Osteomalacia

Q2: According to Freud's theory, what is referred to as the "Perfection Principle"?

Answer: Super Ego
In Freud's theory, the Super Ego is called the "Perfection Principle" because it is based on morality and ideals.

Options:
A. Energy
B. Id
C. Ego
D. Super Ego ✅

Q3: Which defense mechanism involves a person turning strong urges into socially acceptable behaviors?

Answer: Sublimation
When a person transforms negative or socially unacceptable emotions into socially acceptable behavior, it is called sublimation.

Example: If someone has anger issues, they might channel that anger into sports or art, which are socially acceptable activities.

Q4: If a person turns strong urges (like anger) into socially acceptable behavior (like sports), what defense mechanism is being used?

Answer: Sublimation
This defense mechanism involves turning unacceptable emotions into acceptable actions.

Example: A person with anger might channel it into aggressive play, like cricket, as Vaibhav did by scoring a century in his debut match at 14.

Q5: How many arteries are there in the umbilical cord?

Answer: Two arteries and one vein (2 arteries and 1 vein)
The umbilical cord has three blood vessels: two arteries and one vein, which help in delivering nutrition and oxygen to the fetus.

Q6: What is the process of selecting a subset from a population for a survey called?

Answer: Sampling Technique
When a sample of individuals is chosen from the entire population for research, this process is called sampling.

Q7: What is the mode of inheritance for cystic fibrosis?

Answer: Autosomal Recessive
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning the disease occurs when both parents pass on the defective gene.

Options:
A. Autosomal Dominant
B. Autosomal Recessive ✅
C. Non-Mendelian
D. X-linked

Q8: What is the classical sign of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)?

Answer: Snoring
The classic symptom of Obstructive Sleep Apnea is loud snoring, which occurs due to airway obstruction during breathing.

Options:
A. Snoring ✅
B. Hypersomnia
C. Sleep deprivation
D. Narcolepsy

Q9: What is the technique called that separates colloidal particles using a cellophane membrane?

Answer: Dialysis
Dialysis is a technique where colloidal particles are separated using a semi-permeable membrane, commonly used to remove waste products from the blood.

Q10: What is the most appropriate method to measure head circumference in infants with hydrocephalus?

Answer: Measuring Tape
The most effective and simple tool to measure head circumference in infants with hydrocephalus is a measuring tape.

Options:
A. CT Scan
B. MRI
C. PET Scan
D. Measuring Tape ✅

Q11: What is the most appropriate method for measuring head circumference in infants with Hydrocephalus?

Answer: Measuring Tape
For initial screening of hydrocephalus in infants, measuring the head circumference with a measuring tape is the most accurate and simple method.

Q12: Which instrument can visualize the bladder and collect urine samples?

Answer: Cystoscopy
Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that allows visualization of the bladder and collection of samples.

Options:
A. Cystogram (only visualizes)
B. Cystoscopy ✅ (visualizes + sample collection)

Q13: What is the definitive management of Placenta Previa?

Answer: Cesarean Section (C-Section)
In Placenta Previa, where the placenta covers the cervix, vaginal delivery is dangerous. The safest and final treatment is a cesarean section.

Options:
A. Normal vaginal delivery
B. Observation
C. Hysterectomy
D. Cesarean section ✅

Q14: What condition occurs if a person’s consciousness remains intact but memory, personality, and intellect are impaired?

Answer: Dementia
In dementia, consciousness is preserved, but memory, intellect, and personality are affected.

Q15: Which type of prevention is used to prevent specific diseases?

Answer: Primary Prevention
Primary prevention refers to preventing the disease before its onset, such as through vaccination. If the focus is on early detection and treatment, secondary prevention is used.

Q16: Which of the following is not a symptom of shock in pelvic fractures? (EXCEPT Type Question)

Answer: Petechiae
Classical symptoms of shock include hypotension and low, thready pulse, but petechiae (small red spots on the skin) is not a typical symptom of shock.

Q17: Which are naturally occurring diatomic elements?

Answer: Diatomic Elements = O₂, N₂, H₂, Cl₂, F₂, Br₂, I₂
These elements exist as pairs of atoms in their natural form. Carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) are compounds, not diatomic elements.

Q18: What risks can a newborn face if the mother is diabetic?

Answer:

• Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar after birth)
  
  

• Macrosomia (excessive growth of the baby)
  
  

Other risks include neonatal jaundice and respiratory distress.

Q19: What are the possible causes of stomach cancer?

Answer:

• H. pylori infection (strongest risk factor)
  
  

• Obesity and smoking are indirect risk factors.
  
  

Q20: How often should CPR be given in shock?

Answer: 5 cycles in 2 minutes
30 compressions : 2 breaths = 1 cycle
Approximately 100-120 compressions/min.