The CBSE sample paper for class 10 social science 2023-24 with solutions mirrors the actual 10th Science Question Paper in terms of question patterns. This sample paper carries a total of 80 marks, and candidates are allotted a maximum of 3 hours for completion.
CBSE Class 10 Important Questions 2023-24
Structure of the Sample Paper:
The sample paper for class 10 social science 2023-24 with solutions is divided into six sections, labeled A to F, consists a total of 37 questions. It is essential to note that all questions are compulsory.
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Section A:
Questions 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying 1 mark.
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Section B:
Questions 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, each carrying 2 marks. Responses should not exceed 40 words.
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Section C:
Questions 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, each carrying 3 marks. Answers should not exceed 60 words.
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Section D:
Questions 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, each carrying 5 marks. Responses should not exceed 120 words.
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Section E:
Questions 34 to 36 are Case-Based Questions with three sub-questions, each carrying 4 marks. Answers should not exceed 100 words.
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Section F:
Question 37 is Map-Based, carrying a total of 5 marks with two parts – 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
Additional Instructions:
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There is no overall choice in the question paper; however, internal choices are provided in a few questions. Candidates must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
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Separate instructions are provided with each section and question, as needed.
Note:
CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”, and these questions carry 50% weightage in the overall assessment. Candidates are advised to refer to the provided instructions and practice thoroughly for the competency-based questions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2023-24 Sample Paper with Solutions PDF
Access the Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper for the academic year 2023-2024, along with comprehensive solutions, by downloading the PDF documents from the direct links provided below. Familiarize yourself with the question paper format that will be observed in the upcoming Board Exam.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2023-24 Sample Paper with Solutions: Section A
Section-A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each
of the questions 1 – 20. MCQs (1X20=20)
1. Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
i. The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
ii. It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
iii. It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
a. Rowlatt Act
b. Vernacular Press Act
c. Government of India Act
d. Inland Emigration Act
Ans: a. Rowlatt Act
2. Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kolhapur
Ans: b. Bhopal
3. Read the data given below and answer the question.
Educational Achievement of Rural Population of Uttar Pradesh
As per the data given above who has the least percentage of literacy rate in rural population?
a. Male
b. Children
c. Male& Female
d. Female
Ans: d. Female
4. Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
i. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
ii. Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
iii. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
iv. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are correct.
b. Statement ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct.
d. Statement (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct
Ans: d. Statements (i),(iii) & (iv) are correct
5. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, ______ was chosen as its headquarters.
a. Brussels
b. Paris
c. London
d. Zurich
Ans: a. Brussels
6. Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between Majoritarianism and Power sharing?
a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
b. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for consensus building, while Power sharing emphasizes the exclusion of minority groups.
c. Majoritarianism emphasizes the importance of accommodating minority interests, while Power sharing emphasizes the need for majority rule.
d. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for peaceful resolution of conflicts, while Power sharing emphasizes the use of force to impose the majority’s will.
Ans: a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality
Reason(R): All individuals have equal say in electing representatives.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Ans: a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
8. Rahul has a sack of cotton but he is in need of wheat and Anush has a sack of wheat and is in need of cotton, under this situation both will be able to exchange their goods. In case of absence of such coincidence of wants, they may not exchange their goods.
Which one of the following would be the best option that describes the mutual exchange of goods and eliminates the exchange of goods?
Options:
a. Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity.
b. Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity
c. Double coincidence of want, Loan on commodity.
d. Double coincidence of want, Money
Ans: d. Double coincidence of want- Money
9. You are a citizen of a country that has a democratic form of government. You want to ensure that the system of power-sharing in your country is effective and that no one branch of government has absolute power.
Which of the following measures would best meet this goal?
a. All power is concentrated in the hands of the legislature only.
b. Power is divided between the central government and the states or provinces, with each level having its own sphere of influence.
c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
d. Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some degree of autonomy.
Ans: c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
10. Identify the painting from the options given below

a. Frankfurt Parliament
b. Reichstag
c. Duma
d. The House of Parliament
Ans: a. Frankfurt Parliament
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 10
Q. Which of the following does the symbol “crown of oak leaves “stand for?
a. Freedom
b. Shows readiness to fight.
c. Willingness to make peace.
d. Heroism.
Ans. d. Heroism
11. Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by identifying the appropriate statements among the following options:
i.The choice of goods in the markets increase.
ii.Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite the distance between their locations.
iii.Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
iv.The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
a. Statements i and ii are appropriate.
b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
c. All the statements are appropriate.
d. Only statement iv is appropriate.
Ans.: b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
12. Choose the correction option to complete the statement.
If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is ______________.
a. An accountable government.
b. A responsible government.
c. A transparent government.
d. A stable government.
Ans: a. An accountable government
13. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the Non-cooperation movement.
i. General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh.
ii. “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the first world war.
iii. The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat movement.
iv. Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt act.
Options:
a. iv, iii, ii, i
b. ii, i, iv,iii
c. i, iv, iii, ii
d. i, ii, iii, iv
Ans; b. ii, i, iv ,iii
14. If there is a disruption by transporters and lorries refuse to transport vegetables, milk, etc. from rural areas to urban areas, food will become scarce in urban areas, whereas farmers will be unable to sell their products.
Which of the following sectors will be affected due to this situation stated above?
a. Primary and Secondary
b. Secondary and Tertiary
c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
d. Tertiary and Primary
Ans: c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were imported in the late 19th Century as western powers established their outposts in China.
Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to westernstyle schools.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Ans: a. statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
16. “M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing cotton.
Which of the following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in identifying the ideal type of soil?
Clues:
i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
a. Clue i
b. Clue i and iii
c. Clue i and ii
d. Clue iv
Ans: a. Clue i
17. Choose the right option to fill in the blank.
The emergence of _______ is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
a. Monitory democracies
b. Direct democracies
c. Representative democracies
d. Constitutional democracies
Ans: c. Representative democracies
18. The process of integration between different countries is called as ____________.
a. Privatization
b. Globalization
c. Liberalization
d. Competition
Ans: b. Globalization
19. Which of the following statements Is correct keeping the requirement of formation of government in view.
Statement i: It is possible for independent candidates to form a government.
Statement ii: Government formation is exclusively reserved for political parties.
Statement iii: The formation of government is limited to only elected political parties
Statement iv: Government can only be formed by political parties that are elected and hold a majority.
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are right.
b. Statement i, ii and iii are right.
c. Statement iii is right.
d. Only statement iv is right.
Ans; d. Only statement iv is right
20. Miss “S” approached a bank nearby to avail loan for her own business, as well as a Self-help group which is operating in her village, the bank rejected her loan application whereas the Self-help group accepted to support her by providing the loan.
Which one of the following documents is required by the bank, but not required by the self-help group to approve Miss “S’s” loan application for her business?
a. Application for loans.
b. Arrangement Letter.
c. Document on Collateral.
d. Demand promissory note and take delivery letter.
Ans: c. Document on Collateral
SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section B
SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2×4=8)
21. Q: Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium.

For Visually impaired students in lieu of the above question.
Q: Mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium;
22. (A): “The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon at all.” Justify the above statement by giving two reasons.
OR
(B):“Traders and travelers introduced new crops to lands they travelled. “Substantiate this statement with illustrations.
23. Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nādu, wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons.
24. Mention any two reasons to state that India is a federal country.
SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section C
SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3×5-15)
25. Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant impact on the social lives of women in India?
26. (A); A worker in an urban area, who was working in a small factory, was not paid his wages properly, he was forced to work extra hours under poor working conditions, there was no job security, recently he lost his job and was found selling electrical items in a pushcart. Analyze the role of the government in protecting the workers working in an Unorganized sector.
OR
(B): Mr Pawan, a village head wanted to create more job opportunities to increase the income of the people of his village under MNREGA act, Suggest any three activities, so that Mr Pawan could initiate in his village.
27. “Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector’. Justify the statement with any three relevant points.
28. The Indian constitution provides three lists to distribute the legislative power. State any two subjects that are included in the union list. In which list the subject “Education” is included and why
29. Compare Tables “A” & “B” and answer the question given below.
Table A
Year
|
Tertiary
|
Secondary
|
Primary
|
1973-74
|
50
|
10
|
40
|
2013-14
|
68
|
21
|
11
|
Table B
Year
|
Tertiary
|
Secondary
|
Primary
|
1977-78
|
18
|
11
|
71
|
2017-18
|
31
|
25
|
44
|
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? Substantiate your answer.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No29
Q. Tertiary sector activities help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors. Substantiate your answer.
SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section D
SECTION D
LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)
30 (A): Analyze the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the surrounding communities.
OR
(B): “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources” Substantiate this statement with Examples.
31 (A): How would you evaluate Napoleon as an administrator who created a more rational and efficient system? Elucidate with suitable examples.
OR
(B): Analyze the decisions taken by the conservatives at the Congress of Vienna in the year 1815.
32 (A): Analyse the role of a multiparty system in a democratic country like India.
OR
(B): Evaluate the differences between the national and regional parties and assess the requirements for a regional party to become a national party.
33.
(A): A farmer has borrowed money from a money lender at a high rate of interest, as he could not pay the interest, he was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount for the interest borrowed to the money lender. State the consequences he may face in this situation.
OR
(B): “Self –help groups eliminates poverty and empowers women”. Substantiate with suitable answer.
SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section D
SECTION E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS ( 4X3=12)
34 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active … ‘Satyagraha is not physical force.
A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha.
The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …’ It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms.
The British worship the war god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms.
They have made the religion of non-violence their own … In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India, with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule will collapse
within a year.
1. Why did Gandhiji say that passive resistance is not the weapon of the weak? 1
2. “Satyagraha is pure soul-force.” Substantiate this statement in 20 words. 1
3. What according to Mahatma Gandhi is the best weapon to use to collapse British rule in India? 2
35 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Maharashtra is a state located in western India, with a population of over 110 million people. The state is home to several large cities, including Mumbai, and has a significant agricultural sector. However, the state is facing a severe water crisis, with its water resources coming under increasing pressure due to climate change, industrialization, and urbanization. The main challenges faced by water resource
management in Maharashtra are:
i. Overexploitation of groundwater: Maharashtra is one of the most ground water stressed states in India, with the demand for water exceeding the supply. Overexploitation of groundwater for agriculture and urban use has led to a decline in water levels, which has severe implications for the sustainability of
water resources.
ii. Pollution of surface water: Industrialization and urbanization have led to the pollution of surface water bodies such as rivers and lakes. The pollution has led to water quality degradation, which poses risks to human health and the environment.
iii. Inefficient irrigation practices: The agricultural sector is the largest user of water in Maharashtra, accounting for around 80% of total water use. However, traditional irrigation practices such as flood irrigation are inefficient and lead to the wastage of water.
1. Mention any one reasons for the water crisis faced by the state of Maharashtra. 1
2. Propose any one solution to mitigate the water crisis faced by Maharashtra state. 1
3. Despite being the second highest rainfall-receiving state of the country, Maharashtra still faces water crisis. Substantiate this statement in 40 words. 2
36 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income.
This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country.
This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.
Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population.
The average income is also called per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US$ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019, are called high income or rich countries and those with per capita
income of US$ 2500 or less are called low-income countries. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries are generally called developed countries.
1. Explain the significance of per capita Income. 2
2. What are the classifications of countries based on per capita income, and which entity is responsible for determining these classifications?” 2
SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section F
SECTION F
MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37.Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.
a. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
i. Indian National congress session at this place in 1920.
ii. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with
suitable symbols.
i. A Coal mine in Tamil Nādu
ii. A dam built on river Chenab in India.
37. b) iii. A largest natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh
iv. Noida Software Technology Park
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 37 a & b.
37 a. i. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.
ii. Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi Broke the salt law. Answer any 3 of the following.
37. b. i. Name the coal mine located at Tamil Nādu
ii. Name the dam built on the river Chenab.
iii. Name the largest natural seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.
iv. Mention the state where Noida Software Technology Park is located.
CBSE Social Science Additional Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10
The CBSE has officially released the Class 10 Social Science (SST) Additional Sample Paper 2024 on its official website. Utilize these practice questions to enhance your preparation and secure good marks in the upcoming board examination. To download the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Sample Paper 2024, visit the official website at www.cbseacademic.nic.in.
Steps to Download CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper PDF
Here's a guide on how to download the CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2023:
Step I:
Visit the official website of CBSE Academic @
www.cbseacademic.nic.in
.
Step II:
Navigate to the academic section and click on the notification titled "Sample Question Papers of Classes X for Session 2023-2024."
Step III:
Locate the link under "Sample Papers Class X" and click on it.
Step IV:
A list of all subjects for "Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2023" will appear on the screen.
Step V:
Click on "SQP" for "Social Science" to access the CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper PDF. Download the document along with Solutions/Marking Scheme.
Step VI:
After attempting each subject's Class 10 SST Sample Paper PDF, check the provided marking scheme for evaluation.
Follow these steps to efficiently download and make the most of the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper for the 2023-2024 session.
Benefits of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper
Here are the benefits of using CBSE Class 10 Social Science sample papers:
Understanding Exam Pattern:
Sample papers help students understand the exam pattern, including the types of questions, marking scheme, and weightage of different topics.
Practice:
By solving sample papers, students get ample practice in answering questions across various topics, which boosts their confidence and familiarity with the subject.
Identifying Weak Areas:
Sample papers help students identify their weak areas or topics where they need more practice, enabling them to focus their study efforts effectively.
Improving Time Management:
Regular practice with sample papers helps students improve their time management skills, ensuring they can complete the exam within the allotted time.
Self-Assessment:
Students can use sample papers to assess their own understanding of the subject and track their progress over time, identifying areas where they need to improve.