
Rajasthan APO Criminal Law Questions: The Rajasthan Assistant Prosecution Officer (APO) examination requires a thorough understanding of criminal law. Aspirants aiming for this post need to familiarize themselves with the pattern and types of Rajasthan APO Criminal Law Questions. This informative guide will provide insights into the question trends, preparation strategies, and recommended resources to qualify for this exam.
The Rajasthan APO Exam is a competitive test conducted to recruit Assistant Prosecution Officers in Rajasthan. It primarily focuses on criminal law topics such as IPC, CrPC, and the Indian Evidence Act. Candidates must answer various Rajasthan APO Criminal Law Questions that test their legal knowledge, analytical skills, and application of law. A strategic approach and proper resource utilization are essential for success.
The Rajasthan APO Criminal Law Questions highlight the core areas of criminal law that candidates must focus on. These include:| Rajasthan APO Exam Overview | |
|---|---|
| Feature | Details |
| Exam Name | Rajasthan Assistant Prosecution Officer (APO) Exam |
| Conducting Authority | Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) |
| Primary Subjects | IPC, CrPC, Indian Evidence Act |
| Question Types | Objective & Subjective |
| Mode of Examination | Offline (Written Exam) |
| Selection Process | Written Test + Interview |
Q1. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code constitutes an offence against the property?
1. Criminal Misappropriation
2. Criminal intimidation
3. Extortion
4. Assault
5. Theft
Options: (A) Only 3 (B) 1,2,3 and 5 (C) 1,3 and 5 (D) All of the aboveAnswer: C
Q2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) It deals with the punishment for Criminal conspiracy. (B) It provides that each person liable under this Section must have individually committed the entire act. (C) It is based on the principle of Constructive liability. (D) It requires the physical presence of all participants at the crime scene for the applicability of the Section.Answer: C
Q3. A person fires a gun intending to kill another but misses the target, and the bullet injures a bystander. Under which provision of the IPC can the person be held liable
(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 301 (D) Section 304Answer: C
Q4. A cheats by impersonating B, who is deceased. Under which provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, is A liable for punishment?
(A) Section 417 of the IPC, 1860 (B) Section 418 of the IPC, 1860 (C) Section 419 of the IPC, 1860 (D) Section 420 of the IPC, 1860Answer: C
Q5. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with the offence of Stalking?
(A) Section 354B (B) Section 354C (C) Section 354D (D) Section 354Answer: C
4. What is the meaning of ‘tribal areas’ for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Municipal area of Shillong (b) Municipal area of Mizoram (c) Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution (d) Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the ConstitutionAnswer: C
5. A Public Prosecutor refers to a person:
(a) appointed under Section 24 of the Cr.P.C (b) who wishes to act as a Public Prosecutor (c) appointed under Section 24 of the Cr.P.C, including any person acting under the direction of a Public Prosecutor (d) none of the aboveAnswer: C
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6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The words and expressions, used but not defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, shall have the meaning assigned to them in the
(a) Indian Penal Code (b) Code of Civil Procedure (c) The Limitation Act (d) Indian Evidence ActAnswer: A
7. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C, Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by
(a) Central Government (b) High Court (c) Supreme Court (d) State GovernmentAnswer: D
8. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the High Court could be a criminal court?
(a) Section 6 (b) Section 7 (c) Section 8 (d) None of theseAnswer: A
9. The court magistrate 1st class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
(a) Three years (b) Five years (c) Seven years (d) Four yearsAnswer: A
10. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an order from attachment of property of person absconding may be passed at any time after the issue of the proclamation?
(a) Section 83 (b) Section 82 (c) Section 84 (d) Section 65Answer: A
11. Period of appearance for proclamation under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. must not be less than
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days (c) 60 days (d) 90 daysAnswer: B
12. If the Investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be
(a) discharged (b) released on bail on making an application for release on bail (c) released on bail without making an application for release on bail (d) acquittedAnswer: B
13. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may under Section 166-A of the Cr.P.C. issue a can be
(a) Search warrant (b) Letter of requisition (c) Letter of request (d) Written orderAnswer: C
14. Statements of witness recorded under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be used
(a) for contradiction only (b) for corroboration only (c) both for corroboration and contradiction (d) neither for corroboration nor for contradictionAnswer: C
15. Which is not the content of charge?
(a) Description of family background of the accused (b) Specific name of the offence as per the law which provides the offence (c) In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition of the offence (d) Particulars of time and place of the alleged offenceAnswer: A
16. Whenever there is alteration or addition in the charge after commencement of trial, the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-examine the witness or call further witnesses. How is this interpreted as?
(a) A right of the accused (b) Not a right of the accused (c) A duty of the court (d) In the discretion of the courtAnswer: A
17. When does a trial commence in warrant cases instituted on a police report?
(a) With the issuance of process against the accused (b) With submission of the police report (c) On the framing of formal charge by the court (d) On the appearance of the accused pursuant to the process issued by the courtAnswer: C
18. When may the Magistrate, in his discretion, discharge the accused in cases instituted otherwise than on police report?
(a) At any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case (b) The offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence (c) Both, at any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case, and the offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence (d) At any time after the charge has been framed with respect to cognizable and compoundable offencesAnswer: C
19. In a summons case, when the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate, it shall not be necessary to:
(a) State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused (b) Ask whether he pleads guilty (c) Ask whether he has any defence to make (d) Frame a formal chargeAnswer: D
20. In which of the following trials, hearings of the accused on sentence is not necessary in Cr.P.C.?
(a) Trial before Sessions Court (b) Trial of warrant case (c) Trial of summons case (d) Trial of special casesAnswer. C
21. Which of the following courts can try summarily offences mentioned in Section 260 of Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate (b) Any Metropolitan Magistrate (c) Any magistrate of the first class specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf (d) All the aboveAnswer: D
29. In summary trial, which trial procedure the court should follow
(a) Procedure for session trial (b) Procedure for warrant case trial (c) Procedure for summons case trial (d) No specific procedure is prescribedAnswer: C
30. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is an exception”:
(a) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P. (b) Moti Ram v. State of M.P. (c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (d) State of W.B. v. D.K. BasuAnswer: B
31. Power to grant Anticipatory bail can be exercised by
(a) High Court (b) Court of sessions (c) Chief Judicial Magistrate (d) High Court and Court of Sessions bothAnswer: D
32. As per Section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on
(a) March 15, 1872 (b) September 1, 1872 (c) September 15, 1872 (d) October 1, 1872Answer: B
33. Which of the following is not included in the definition of 'fact' according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A) A state of things capable of being perceived by the senses B) A mental condition of which any person is conscious C) A theory or hypothesis D) The intention of a person at a specific timeAnswer: C
34. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
(a) to provide, define and amend the law of evidence (b) to provide, consolidate the law of evidence (c) to define and amend the law of evidence (d) to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidenceAnswer: D
Relevancy of facts (Sec 5-11, 24-30, 32, 45-51, 52-55)35. Only such facts are made relevant by the Evidence Act as are encompassed by:
(a) Section 5 to Section 55 of the Evidence Act (b) Section 3 to Section 32 of the Evidence Act (c) All the Sections of the Evidence Act (d) Only such facts which can be proved as per Section 59 and Section 60 of the Evidence ActAns. (a)
36. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:
(a) Confession (b) Dying declaration (c) Hearsay evidence (d) Documentary evidenceAns. (c)
37. According to Section 118, who is generally competent to testify?
a) Only adults b) All persons unless unable to understand questions or give rational answers c) Only persons over the age of 18 d) Only persons without any physical disabilitiesAnswer: B
38. Which Section states that no judge or magistrate shall be compelled to answer questions about their conduct in court without a special order?
a) Section 120 b) Section 121 c) Section 122 d) Section 123Answer: B
Accessing the PDF presented below will surely help candidates practice effectively and understand the recurring question patterns. Ensure that the PDF contains well-explained answers for better clarity.
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