Indian Constitution Questions in UPSC Prelims 2026 Analysis

Indian Constitution Questions in UPSC Prelims 2026: For UPSC Prelims 2026, 7 questions were dedicated to the Indian Constitution, making up a notable part of the Polity section. These questions required strong conceptual clarity, analytical skills, and knowledge of recent constitutional changes and Supreme Court rulings. Unlike previous exams focusing on factual recall, the 2026 Indian Constitution questions in UPSC Prelims assessed candidates' ability to apply constitutional principles to current governance issues with factual recall. The 2026 Polity section highlighted UPSC's move towards analytical questions over purely factual ones.

Indian Constitution Questions in UPSC Prelims 2026 Detailed Breakdown 

Below are the exact questions along with their correct options. Copy these directly from your answer key:

Question 1

'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

(a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b) The view of 'Y' that 'law' includes custom is not correct.

(c) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.

(d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Correct Option: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Question 2

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26 January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Correct Option:(d) There is only one correct statement.

Question 3

Which of the following statements with regard to persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, and places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.

2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.

3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 only

Correct Option: (a) 1 and 2

Question 4

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.

3. The Constitution of India provides for the reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, which include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, which are statements 1 and 3.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Correct Option: (a) There are two correct statements, which include statement 2.

Question 5

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.

2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.

3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, which include statement 2.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Correct Option: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Question 6

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(c) There are two correct statements, which include statement 1.

            (d) There is no correct statement.

Correct Option: (d) There is no correct statement.

Question 7

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :

1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.

3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Correct Option: (c) 2 and 3 only

Indian Constitution Questions in UPSC Prelims 2026 Key Topics Tested

The 7 questions related to the Indian Constitution in UPSC Prelims 2026 covered several important themes. Understanding these areas is crucial for aspirants preparing for future examinations.

• Constitutional Definitions and Interpretations: This includes significant provisions such as Article 13, defining the scope and meaning of 'Law', encompassing customs and ordinances.

• Marginalised Sections and Welfare: Questions covered constitutional provisions, specific schedules like the Fifth and Sixth, tax exemptions, and legal frameworks like the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2018, protecting Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

• Parliamentary Procedures: This involved rules governing legislative functions, particularly different types of parliamentary questions (Starred vs. Unstarred) and the structure, tenure, and responsibilities of Parliamentary Committees.

• Miscellaneous Provisions: This section included questions on specific constitutional texts regarding the commencement, short title, and repeals outlined in the Constitution's concluding articles.

Preparation Strategy for UPSC Prelims 2027 Indian Constitution

To excel in the Indian Constitution section of UPSC Prelims 2027, aspirants should adopt a comprehensive strategy. The trends from 2026 emphasize a conceptual and analytical approach. Physics Wallah recommends the following steps:

1. Master the Bare Act

• Read Articles 1–395 thoroughly.

• Focus particularly on Articles 14–35 (Fundamental Rights).

• Understand Articles 32 and 226 concerning Writ Jurisdiction.

2. Study Major Amendments

• Maintain a list of critical amendments and their provisions, such as the 42nd Amendment (1976), 44th Amendment (1978), 73rd & 74th Amendments, and 101st Amendment.

3. Practice Previous Year Questions

• Solve Polity PYQs from 2015–2026.

• Carefully analyse statement-based questions and understand why certain options are incorrect.

4. Follow Supreme Court Judgments

• Stay updated on key cases relevant to constitutional matters, including Kesavananda Bharati Case, Berubari Case, and Minerva Mills Case.

5. Use Standard Resources

• Refer to NCERT Class 11 – Indian Constitution at Work, and M. Laxmikanth – Indian Polity (6th/7th Edition).

• Regularly read The Hindu/Indian Express for constitutional news.

Importance of Indian Constitution Questions in UPSC Prelims

The Indian Constitution is a cornerstone of the UPSC Prelims, consistently contributing a notable number of questions to the GS Paper I. For 2026, the focus shifted towards analytical, statement-based questions requiring a deep understanding of constitutional provisions. Mastering the Indian Constitution questions for UPSC Prelims is vital for several reasons:

• Polity is often a high-scoring section in GS Paper I.

• Indian Constitution questions frequently connect with current affairs, especially concerning amendments and Supreme Court judgments.

• A strong conceptual foundation in polity is beneficial for the Mains and Interview stages of the examination.

• Previous Year Questions (PYQs) consistently show recurring themes and concepts, making their study invaluable.