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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24 is available on the official website of CBSE @cbseacademic.nic.in. Students can download questions from the official website!
authorImageYashasvi Tyagi3 Jan, 2024
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24: The Central Board of Secondary Education has issued the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24 for the upcoming Class 10 Board Exams on its official website @cbseacademic.nic.in.

This year, CBSE will conduct a single board examination without terms. Students getting ready for the CBSE Class 10th exam in the session 2023-24 are advised to carefully review these additional sample papers. It is recommended that students preparing for the class 10 secondary school examination download the CBSE Class 10 Additional Practice Paper 2023-24 in PDF format to become familiar with real exam-level questions.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24 Overview

The recently issued CBSE Class 10 Social Science Practice Paper 2023-24 covers the entire syllabus and incorporates 50 percent competency questions. It offers a glimpse of the board pattern, outlining the number and types of questions (objective, short answer, long answer), time duration, and the overall structure mirroring the actual question paper. The Class 10 Social Science paper is segmented into six parts – A, B, C, D, E, and F, comprising a total of 37 mandatory questions.
  • Section A includes questions 1 to 20, featuring multiple-choice questions, each worth 1 mark.
  • Section B consists of questions 21 to 24, requiring very short answers of up to 40 words for each two-mark question.
  • Section C comprises questions 25 to 29, demanding short answers of up to 60 words for each three-mark question.
  • Section D encompasses questions 30 to 33, which are long-answer questions, carrying 5 marks each with responses limited to 120 words.
  • Section E covers questions 34 to 36, which are case study-based, each with three sub-questions and a 100-word limit for the 4-mark answers.
  • Section F presents question 37, a map-based inquiry worth 5 marks, with two parts: 37(a) from History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks).

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24 PDF

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Paper Questions 2023-24 in Detail

We have discussed the Class 10th SST Additional Practice Question Paper with all its solutions below.

Section A – MCQs

Q1: What was the perception of the Rowlatt Act of 1919 regarding fundamental rights and civil liberties among Indians? (a) It was viewed as regressive legislation in favour of the majority of Indians. (b) It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty. (c) It was seen as a necessary measure to prevent communal tensions. (d) It was regarded as a safeguard for protecting British soldiers. Ans: (b) It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty.

Q2: Ankur, a person living in Rajasthan, chose to set up an underwater water pump at his home, capable of drawing groundwater from depths of 250-300 metres. This trend of installing such pumps is gaining popularity throughout the state. Which of the following will this growing practice most likely lead to in the near future? (a) decline in the groundwater quality (b) reduced monsoon water resources (c) increased number of waterborne diseases (d) Water scarcity resulting from excessive utilisation Ans: (d) Water scarcity resulting from excessive utilisation

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers

Q3: Examine the provided map illustrating the placement of thermal and nuclear power facilities throughout India. The Air Quality Index (AQI) serves to assess current air pollution levels, with a higher AQI indicating inferior air quality. Considering this information, which of the indicated areas on the map is PROBABLY going to encounter relatively improved AQI? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

Ans: (c) R

CBSE Class 10 Pre Board Sample Papers 2023-24

Q4: Rina, a 28-year-old woman from a marginalised community, lacks formal education but excels in creating traditional handicrafts. Her family works tirelessly to provide two meals daily. Considering this, what development goal would be the MOST important for enhancing the well-being of Rina and her family? (a) increasing access to clean energy in Rina’s community (b) reducing the impact of climate change on Rina’s community (c) creating more training opportunities for Rina and other artisans (d) ensuring that Rina has the same rights and opportunities as men in her community Ans: (c) Creating more training opportunities for Rina and other artisans.
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Q5: 'India's ambitions for eco-friendly energy face a significant challenge – the Great Indian Bustard.' A study conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) that examined 80 kilometres of power lines in the Thar desert revealed four fatalities of the bustard, a critically endangered species, in a single year. These deaths were attributed to high-transmission wires, including those associated with wind turbines.

Is it advisable to rethink the installation of power lines in regions where these species are present? (a) Yes, alternative methods of power generation should be explored to minimise this risk. (b) Yes, the goal of protecting biodiversity is the only goal that should be prioritised. (c) No, the benefits of power lines outweigh the negative impact on the species. (d) No, the species is not yet extinct, and currently, no action needs to be taken. Ans: (a) Yes, alternative methods of power generation should be explored to minimise this risk. Q6: There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Power sharing can contribute to conflict prevention in society. Reason (R): Power sharing guarantees the involvement of diverse social groups in decision-making, diminishing marginalisation, and promoting inclusivity. (a) A is true but R is false. (b) A is false but R is true. (c) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. Ans: (c) Both A and R are true and R explains A. Q7: In a state in India, communities X and Y have been involved in a prolonged dispute regarding living together and sharing resources. The tensions have escalated, resulting in a request from both communities for self-governance. What is the BEST resolution to this conflict? (a) collapsing the present government due to its inefficiency in governing the state (b) delaying the demands of self-administration and maintaining the current power structure (c) imposing strict regulations to control the movements and interactions of both communities (d) establishing a power-sharing arrangement where both communities have a role in decision-making Ans:(d) establishing a power-sharing arrangement where both communities have a role in decision-making. Q8: Which of the following is a definite indicator of the successful implementation of democratic governance? (a) free economy dictated by market forces (b) provision of basic amenities to the citizens (c) establishment of central financial institutions (d) establishment of institutions to protect people’s rights Ans: (d) establishment of institutions to protect people’s rights

Q9: There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Self-help groups are instrumental in promoting economic democracy. Reasoning (R): They contribute to a more equitable distribution of economic power and opportunities. (a) A is true but R is false. (b) A is false but R is true. (c) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. Ans: (c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.

Q10: The idea of subsidiarity highlights the importance of letting decisions be taken by those most impacted by them. This supports decentralisation, efficiency, and citizen involvement in governing, with higher levels of authority stepping in only when lower-level authorities can't handle specific issues effectively.

Which of the following constitutional principles/legislations is in close alignment with the principle stated above? (a) separation of power between the executive, legislature, and judiciary (b) division of power between the central, state, and local government (c) right of individuals to form and join political parties of their choice (d) reservation for women in the highest law-making bodies Ans:(b) division of power between the central, state, and local government

Section B – Very Short Answer Questions

Q11: Consumer Affairs conducts inspections in Malda markets to monitor for irregularities; there were reports of soft drinks being sold at elevated prices.

(i) Which consumer right was being violated in the above instance of soft drinks being sold at a higher price? (ii) Which consumer right was LIKELY invoked in response to the complaints? Ans: (i) Right to be informed (ii) right to seek redressal

Q12: Shruti performed a web search for ‘Teacher’ and found that 80% of the images had women, while a search for ‘Pilot’ mainly showed men.

Discuss how these web search results reflect societal perceptions and the sexual division of labour. Explain with an example. Ans: – The disproportionate number of women in teaching and men in piloting supports conventional ideas about job roles. Teaching is often seen as a nurturing role, thought to be fitting for women, whereas piloting is viewed as a demanding job, seen as suitable for men both physically and mentally. Likewise, nursing is commonly linked with women, and engineering is typically linked with men. These patterns reflect societal beliefs and sustain the gender-based division of labour. (to be assessed as a whole)

Q13: Look into the potential outcomes for the fundamental rights of party members in political groups that do not have internal democracy.

Ans: – Freedom of speech and expression within the party framework may be limited for party workers expressing their opinions, ideas, or concerns. – Equality of opportunity may not be uniformly accessible, and not everyone will have an equal chance to progress up the success ladder. – any other relevant point (any two to be evaluated for two marks)

Section C – Short Answer Type Questions

Q14: A water shortage caused by drought can lead to widespread effects, influencing agricultural output, the accessibility of food resources, industrial operations, and livelihoods. This can greatly affect human well-being.

  1. i) What does the above statement represent about the relationship between different resources?
  2. ii) How does such a situation represent a lack of resource planning?
Ans: It illustrates the interconnection and interdependence among resources. The presence of food resources relies on water, and any adverse effect on agriculture would influence people's livelihoods, affecting human resources. -The situation represents a lack of water management and over reliance on monsoons. (to be evaluated as a whole)

Q15: Discuss the MOST LIKELY impact if India operated without a federal system.

Build the answer around these points: – regional autonomy – Effectiveness in governance – decision-making process Ans: Regional autonomy Local governments might lack significant decision-making authority. The ambitions of regions could be stifled.
  1. Effectiveness of Governance
Local issues might not receive due attention, leading to a disconnect between grassroots reality and governance.
  1. Decision-making processes
The process of making decisions could turn less democratic and inclusive. There is a possibility of overlooking regional aspirations. – any other relevant point (Award one mark for each point)

Q16: Read the statements given below regarding Indian Railways.

Statement 1 (S1): Indian Railways has largely been a Public Sector Enterprise. Statement 2 (S2): Private players are making an entry into the Indian Railway market. Explain what trend these statements – S1 and S2 – reflect in the railways sector in India.

Ans:

  • It indicates a rising tendency of collaboration between the public and private sectors in the Indian market.
  • The introduction of private trains is expected to improve service quality and enhance the overall customer experience.
  • This development would bring about a wider range of options for the Indian population.
  • Furthermore, it is likely to result in increased investment in public infrastructure.
  • However, there is a concern that it might make railway services unaffordable for the general public.
  • Additionally, there is the potential for the government to experience a loss of revenue (to be evaluated in its entirety).

Section D – Long Answer Question

Q17: Explore the importance and main milestones of the Civil Disobedience Movement that occurred in India in the fight for independence.

Ans: Key milestones Dandi March: Gandhi's 240-mile journey to Dandi to make salt became a strong symbol of resistance, attracting global notice. Suppression and Detainment: British authorities reacted with oppression and apprehensions, sparking public anger and fortifying the movement. Talks and Results: The movement prompted discussions between Significance Mass Involvement: The movement experienced extensive participation from various sections of society, demonstrating solidarity and resolve. Avoidance of British Goods: Indians refrained from purchasing British products to encourage self-reliance and oppose colonial economic strategies. Dissemination of Nationalist Thoughts: The movement heightened awareness, encouraged involvement, and nurtured national cohesion among the public. Enduring Impact and Motivation: The movement's enduring significance as a symbol of non-violent opposition inspired upcoming freedom fighters globally. OR

Q17: Read the following excerpt about the Right to Protest in India and answer

the question that follows.

The Indian Constitution ensures the basic right to protest, stemming from broader freedoms like speech and assembly. However, this right has limitations in the interest of India's sovereignty. Acts of violence in protests go against citizens' fundamental duties, highlighting that the right to protest includes only peaceful demonstrations. Analyse the aspects of Satyagraha used in the 20th-century Indian independence movement in relation to their compatibility with the Right to Protest sanctioned by the Indian constitution, as outlined in the passage.

Section E – Case-Based Questions

Q18: Read the information about climate-smart agriculture and answer the question that follows.

Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is a method that directs efforts to shift agri-food systems towards eco-friendly and climate-resistant practices. CSA aids in achieving globally accepted objectives like the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Agreement on climate change. It aligns with the Food and Agriculture Organisation Strategic Framework 2022-2031, focusing on the Four Betters: improved production, enhanced nutrition, a healthier environment, and an improved life for everyone, ensuring no one is left behind. (i) A CSA expert suggested increased production and consumption of millets in India. Justify their stance. (ii) What is the necessity to think of CSA in India? (iii) Suggest two methods through which India can shift towards CSA. Ans: (i) -Millets have high nutritional value.
  • They rely on rain for water, requiring minimal irrigation, making them suitable for cultivation in dry and semi-dry areas.
  • Millets demand modest investment for successful growth, positioning them as economical alternatives to conventional grains in less affluent countries.
(any one point to be evaluated) (ii) It is important to start planning for CSA in India because of the changing climate due to global warming. (to be evaluated as a whole) -use of genetically modified seeds resistant to insect damage for cropping -shift towards organic and natural farming methods -any other relevant point (any two to be evaluated)

Q19: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

Changes in population numbers and patterns can significantly impact the possibilities of reducing poverty and achieving sustainable development. Poverty is both affected by and influences population dynamics, such as growth, age distribution, and urban-rural spread. These factors play a crucial role in determining a country's development outlook and its ability to enhance the living standards of the less privileged. Making investments in improved health, including reproductive health, is vital for personal security and reducing illness and suffering. This, in turn, enhances a nation's productivity and development potential. (i) What is the impact of investing in enhanced healthcare infrastructure on decreasing preventable diseases and chronic conditions? (ii) Elaborate on the connection between population trends and the alleviation of poverty. (iii) The dynamics of poverty are shaped by factors such as population growth, age distribution, and rural-urban spread. Investigate this statement, emphasising the interdependence between poverty and population. Analyse the statement and highlight the mutual relationship between poverty and population. Ans: (i) Investing in improved healthcare enables people to avail themselves of vital medical services, like vaccinations, prenatal care, and treatment for common illnesses. This, in turn, can reduce the number of deaths from preventable diseases (mortality) and decrease the prevalence of chronic conditions (morbidity). (ii) A growing population can strain a country's resources, including food, water, and land, leading to increased poverty levels due to inadequate access to nourishment and suitable housing. (iii) Population growth poses challenges to resources and infrastructure, potentially elevating poverty. The age structure of a population influences labour markets and social support systems, impacting poverty levels. The distribution between rural and urban areas determines access to essential services and economic opportunities, further shaping poverty rates. Poverty, in turn, contributes to specific population dynamics, such as high fertility rates and limited healthcare access, thereby perpetuating the cycle of poverty. (two points to be assessed for two marks)

Section F – Map Skill Based Question

Q20: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

  1. The place where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place
  2. The 1927 Indian National Congress session was held at this place

20 b. On the same map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

  1. i) a dam built on the river Sutlej.
  2. ii) a software technology park in Northern India.
  3. iii) the southernmost port on the east coast of India.
  1. iv) a nuclear power plant in the state of Maharashtra.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question 37 part (a) and part (b).

(a)

  1. Name the place where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.
  2. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in
1927.

(b)

The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b) Answer any three of the following.
  1. i) Name the dam built on the river Sutlej.
  2. ii) Name the place in northern India where an important software technology park is present.
iii) Name the southernmost port on the east coast of India.
  1. iv) Name the nuclear power plant present in the state of Maharashtra.
Ans: (i) Amritsar, Punjab (ii) Madras Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question 37 part (a) and part (b).

(a)

  1. Name the place where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.
  2. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was
held in 1927.

(b)

The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b) Answer any three of the following. i) Bhakra Nangal Dam ii) Noida iii) Tuticorin iv) Tarapur Atomic Power Plant (Award one mark each for any three correct locations)
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