UPSC Prelims Topicwise Questions 2025, Subject-Wise PYQs

 

 

UPSC Prelims Topicwise Questions 2025 categorizes the 100 questions from General Studies Paper 1 into subjects such as Geography, Polity, History, Economy, Science and Technology, and Environment for systematic preparation. To help aspirants, PW has provided solved UPSC Prelims topicwise questions, enabling them to understand the nature of questions and strengthen conceptual clarity. 

Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

UPSC Prelims Topicwise Questions 2025

UPSC Prelims 2025 is over, and candidates across the country are now reviewing the question paper to find out the distribution of questions across various subjects. To assist in this process, we have categorized UPSC Prelims Topicwise Questions 2025 to help aspirants analyze the paper effectively, spot recurring patterns, and prepare strategically.

Here is subject wise distribution of UPSC Prelims Question Paper:

Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2025 Questions with Solutions

 

UPSC Prelims Geography Questions

Here are Geography questions that were asked in the UPSC Prelims 2025:

1. Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. 

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.   

Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct   

2. Consider the following countries: 

I. Bolivia  

II. Brazil  

III. Colombia   

IV. Ecuador  

V. Paraguay  

VI. Venezuela  

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?   

(a) Only two   

(b) Only three   

(c) Only four   

(d) Only five 

3. Consider the following water bodies: 

I. Lake Tanganyika 

II. Lake Tonlé Sap 

III. Patos Lagoon   

Through how many of them does the equator pass?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All the three   

(d) None   

4. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? 

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. 

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. 

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.   

Select the correct answer using the code given below.   

(a) I and III only   

(b) I and II only   

(c) I, II and III   

(d) II and III only  

5. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I:  The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.   

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I   

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I 

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct   

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

6. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I:  In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.   

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I   

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I 

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct   

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

 

7. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.   

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. 

Statement III:  Clay is not at all porous. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct   

 

8. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.  

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.  

III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) I and III only   

(b) I and II only   

(c) I, II and III   

(d) II and III only 

 

9. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?  

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.  

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.   

Select the correct answer using the code given below.    

(a) I only    

(b) II only    

(c) Both I and II    

(d) Neither I nor II 

 

10. Consider the following countries: 

I. United Kingdom  

II. Denmark  

III. New Zealand   

IV. Australia  

V. Brazil  

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?   

(a) All the five   

(b) Only four   

(c) Only three   

(d) Only two   

 

11. Consider the following statements: 

1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.  

2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I only   

(b) II only   

(c) Both I and II   

(d) Neither I nor II

Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

12. Consider the following pairs: 

 In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All the three   

(d) None   

13. Consider the following pairs:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three 

(d) None

UPSC Prelims Polity Questions

Here are Polity questions that were asked in the UPSC Prelims 2025:

1.With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: 

 

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

c. All the three

d. None 

 

2. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.  

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.  

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.  

Which of the statements given above are not correct?  

a. I and II only 

b. II and III only  

c. I and III only 

d. I, II and III  

 

3. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.  

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the legislature of any State or Union Territory and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.  

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.  

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

a. III only  

b. II and III  

c. I and IV  

d. None of the above statements is correct  

 

4. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited  judicial review. 

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I   

(b) Only II   

(c) Both I and II   

(d) Neither I nor II   

 

5. Consider the following statements: 

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.   

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.   

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. I and II only 

b. II and III only 

c. I and III only 

d. I, II and III   

 

6. Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule,the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.   

II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.   

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

a. I only   

b. II only   

c. Both I and II

d. Neither I nor II   

 

7. Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.    

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

a. Both Statement I and II are correct but statement II explains Statement I 

b. Both Statement I and II are correct and statement II does not explain Statement I   

c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct  

d. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

 

8. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: 

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.   

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. 

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only   

(b) II and III only   

(c) I and III only  

(d) I, II and III 

 

9. With reference to India, consider the following bodies:   

I. The Inter-State Council  

II. The National Security Council  

III. The Zonal Councils  

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three  

(d) None  

 

10. Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions in India:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions situations where the Governor of a State can act in his/her discretion.  

II. The President of India can, on his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration, even without it being forwarded by the Governor of the concerned State.  

Which of the above statements is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and II  

(d) Neither I nor II  

 

11. Consider the following pairs:   

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?  

a. Only one  

b. Only two  

c. All three  

d. None  

 

12. Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: 

I. If an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government loses its executive power, and a local body assumes total administration of such areas.  

II. The Union Government can take over total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendation of the Governor.  

Which of the above statements is/are correct?  

(a) I only   

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and II  

(d) Neither I nor II  

 

13. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:   

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule  

II. Extent of the executive power of a State  

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office  

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before the Bill is presented to the President for assent?  

a. I and II only  

b. II and III only  

c. I and III only  

d. I, II and III  

 

14. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.  

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.  

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in the legislature or its committees.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

a. I and II only  

b. II and III only  

c. I and III only  

d. I, II and III  

UPSC Prelims Modern History Questions

Here are Modern History questions that were asked in UPSC Prelims 2025:

1. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:  

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.  

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.   

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I only   

(b) II only   

(c) Both 1 and II   

(d) Neither I nor II  

 

2. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:  

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth   

II. Observance of strict non-violence   

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public   

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes   

How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three   

(d) All the four   

 Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

3. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: 

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.  

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and II  

(d) Neither I nor II 

 

4. "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of 

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha   

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi   

(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London   

(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement  

 

5. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das   

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant   

(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami   

(d) M. A. Jinnah   

 

6. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme? 

(a) The Poona Pact   

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact) Agreement   

(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement   

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935   

 

7. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'? 

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker   

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar   

(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav   

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar  

 

8. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music  training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu  Digambar Paluskar in 

(a) Delhi 

(b) Gwalior 

(c) Ujjain 

(d) Lahore 

UPSC Prelims Science & Technology Questions

In UPSC Prelims 2025, following Science & Technology questions were asked:

1. Consider the following types of vehicles:  

I. Full battery electric vehicles   

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles   

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles   

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All the three   

(d) None   

 

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:  

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.   

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.   

III.All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.   

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) Only one    

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three   

(d) None 

 

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:  

I. Cobalt  

II. Graphite  

III. Lithium   

IV. Nickel  

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) Only three   

(d) All the four 

  

4. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants   

(b) These are explosives in military weapons   

(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles   

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion 

 

5. Consider the following statements:  

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.  

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).  

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) I and II only   

(b) II and III only   

(c) I and III only   

(d) I, II and III 

 

6. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

I. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

 

7. Consider the following statements:  

I. No virus can survive in ocean water.  

II. No virus can infect bacteria.  

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.  

How many of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All the three   

(d) None 

 

8. Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.  

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.  

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and Statement  III is correct and that explain statement t I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

 

9. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? 

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.  

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.  

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I, II and III  

(b) I only  

(c) II and III only  

(d) I and II only  

 

10. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.  

II. Along with other countries, the US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and I   

(d) Neither I nor II  

 Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.   

Statement II:  Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.   

Which one of the following is correct?   

(a) Both are correct and II explains I   

(b) Both are correct but II does not explain I   

(c) Only I is correct   

(d) Only II is correct   

 

12. Consider the following space missions: 

I. Axiom-4   

II. SpaDeX   

III. Gaganyaan   

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?    

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All three 

(d) None 

13. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) All three   

(d) None   

UPSC Prelims Economy Questions

Following questions were asked from Economy subject in UPSC Prelims 2025:

1. With reference to investments, consider the following:  

1. Bonds  

2. Hedge Funds  

3. Stocks   

4. Venture Capital 

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?   

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All the four 

 

2. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?  

I. Buying and selling Government bonds  

II. Buying and selling foreign currency  

III. Pension fund management   

IV. Lending to private companies  

V. Printing and distributing currency notes 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.   

(a) I and II only 

(b) II, III and IV 

(c) I, III, IV and V 

(d), II and V  

 

3. Consider the following statements: 

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).  

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II  

 

4. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.   

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I   

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I 

(c) Statement I is correct Statement II is not correct but   

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

 

5. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.   

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.   

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II 

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct  

 

6. Consider the following statements:  

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.  

II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. 

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) I and Il only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III  

 

7. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.   

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.   

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct  

 Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

8. Consider the following statements: 

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.  

II.Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.  

III.Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a)I and II only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III   

9. Suppose the revenue expenditure is 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of 10,000 crores and interest payments of 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?  

I. Revenue deficit is 20,000 crores.   

II. Fiscal deficit is 10,000 crores.   

III. Primary deficit is 4,000 crores.    

Select the correct answer using the code given below.    

(a) I and II only    

(b) II and III only    

(c) I and III only    

(d) I, II and III   

 

10. A country's fiscal deficit stands at 50,000 crores. It is receiving 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?  

(a) 48,500 crores   

(b) 51,500 crores    

(c) 58,500 crores    

(d) None of the above   

 

11. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): 

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.   

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.  

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II.    

Which of the statements given above are correct?    

(a) I and II only    

(b) II and III only    

(c) I and III only    

(d) I, II and III   

 

12. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.  

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.   

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.    

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?    

(a) I only    

(b) I and II    

(b) I and III     

(d) III only  

13. Consider the following countries:  

I. United Arab Emirates   

II. France   

III. Germany    

IV. Singapore   

V. Bangladesh   

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?    

(a) Only two    

(b) Only three    

(c) Only four    

(d) All the five

14. Which of the following statements with  regard to recommendations of the 15th  Finance Commission of India are correct? 

I. It has recommended grants of `4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year  2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.  

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes  are to be shared with States.  

III. `45,000 crores are to be kept as  performance-based incentive for all  States for carrying out agricultural  reforms.  

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to  reward fiscal performance.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I, II and III  

(b) I, II and IV  

(c) I, III and IV  

(d) II, III and IV  

UPSC Prelims Environment Questions

Here are UPSC Prelims Environment Questions that were asked in the 2025 exam:

1. Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.   

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.   

Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

2. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.   

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.   

Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

3. With reference to 'Direct Air Capture' (DAC), which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.  

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.  

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.   

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I and II only   

(b) III only   

(c) I, II and III   

(d) None of the above statements is correct  

 Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

4. Consider the following statements:  

I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita.   

II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.   

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of СО2 emissions in India.   

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I and III only   

(b) II only  

(c) II and III only   

(d) I, II and III  

5. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?   

(a) Only two   

(b) Only three   

(c) Only four   

(d) All the five

 

6. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.   

II. Marine phytoplankton and photo synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world's oxygen.   

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.   

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I and II   

(b) II only   

(c) I and III  

(d) None of the above statements is correct  

7. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide   

(b) Silver nitrate and potassium iodide   

(c) Silver iodide and potassium nitrate   

(d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride   

Click Here to Download Complete UPSC Prelims Topicwise Questions 2025

UPSC Prelims Subject Wise Questions Book

Physics Wallah (PW) offers a comprehensive resource for UPSC Prelims preparation through their Subject-wise UPSC Prelims PYQ Books. These books are designed to provide structured practice and detailed solutions to questions that were asked in previous year papers. Wait no more, scale up your preparation by solving PW OnlyIAS Solved UPSC Prelims PYQ booklets:

Enroll Now for UPSC Online Course 

Click Here for UPSC Wallah Previous Years Solved Questions Combo Set 

UPSC Prelims Topicwise Previous Year Questions

Analyzing Previous Year Questions is one of the most effective strategies for cracking the UPSC Civil Services Prelims. PYQs help aspirants understand the exam pattern, identify important topics, and get familiar with the nature of questions asked over the years.

To aid in your preparation, we’ve compiled subject-wise UPSC Prelims PYQs from 2013 onwards, along with detailed solutions. These are carefully categorized to help you focus on one subject at a time and strengthen your conceptual clarity:

UPSC Prelims have become challenging over the years. Sail through this stage with the guidance from Physics Wallah!