PCR MCQs for NEET Exam, Practice Questions with Solutions

PCR MCQs: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an important topic in Biotechnology - Principles and Processes for NEET Biology. This topic carries around 12% weightage in the NEET Biology syllabus. Understanding PCR MCQs is very important because multiple questions have been asked in NEET previous year question papers (PYQs) from this concept. Solving MCQs not only helps in revision but also improves speed and accuracy during the exam.

Practicing PCR MCQs will help you get a strong grip on this topic. You can also refer to NEET sample papers and chapter-wise weightage guides to know how often this topic is asked in exams.

PCR MCQs for NEET Exam

PCR is a very important process in biotechnology that helps in DNA amplification. It is widely used in genetic testing, forensic science, and research. Many MCQs from this topic appear in NEET every year.

To understand PCR deeply and solve all related MCQs, you should read Biotechnology - Principles and Processes NEET notes. These notes cover all details needed to answer any NEET Biology MCQs related to PCR.

PCR MCQs for NEET with Explanations

Here are some important MCQs on PCR MCQs along with explanations.

Q1 The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has defined 'biotechnology' as:

1. the integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and services.

2. techniques of using live organisms from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans.

3. techniques of using enzymes from organisms to produce products useful to humans.

4.  the techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA).

Answer: A

Explanation: The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) defines biotechnology as a multidisciplinary field that integrates biology with technology to develop products and services.

Q2 There are three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism. Arrange these steps in the correct sequence.
I. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
II. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
III. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.

1. II  III

2. II  III  I

3.  III  II  I

4. III  I  II

Answer: D

Explanation: The correct sequence for genetic modification involves first identifying the desired DNA, then introducing it into the host, and finally ensuring its maintenance and inheritance in the progeny.

Q3 The microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene guns for transformation are composed of what?

1. Silver or Platinum

2. Platinum or Zinc

3. Silicon or Platinum

4. Gold or Tungsten

Answer: D

Explanation: Gold and tungsten are used to coat DNA in gene gun technology because they are non-reactive, dense, and can efficiently deliver genetic material into cells.

Q4 Read the following statements (I-IV).
I. Plasmid is autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.
II. Mosquito acts as a vector.
III. The Roman numerals in the names of restriction enzymes correspond to the number of nucleotides in the recognition sequences.
IV. The enzyme that added methyl groups to DNA is known as a restriction enzyme.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

1. I and II only

2.  I and III only

3. II and IV only

4. III and IV only

Answer: D

Explanation: The Roman numerals in restriction enzymes represent the order of discovery, not nucleotide sequence length. Also, restriction enzymes cut DNA, while methylases add methyl groups.

Q5 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Presence of more than one recognition site within the vector will make the process easy for the gene cloning.
Statement II: The vector needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition sites.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

4.  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation: Multiple recognition sites in a vector can complicate cloning. A vector should ideally have a single recognition site to facilitate precise gene insertion.

Q6 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bioreactor is usually cylindrical or has a curved base to help with mixing the contents evenly.
Statement II: Sampling ports allow for the withdrawal of small volumes of culture to monitor the process.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.  Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

2.  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3.  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4.  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation: Bioreactors are designed for optimal mixing of culture contents, and sampling ports allow small volumes to be withdrawn for monitoring without contaminating the system.

Q7 An enzyme that catalyzes the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is:

1.  Exonuclease.

2.  Endonuclease.

3.  Hind-II.

4.  EcoR I.

Answer: A

Explanation: Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA strands, whereas endonucleases cut at specific sequences within the DNA.

Q8 Read the following statements (I-IV).
I. Restriction endonucleases function by inspecting the DNA and binding to it when they find their specific recognition sequence.
II. DNA fragments are positively charged molecules
III. DNA fragments move towards the anode under an electric field.
IV. The recognition sites for restriction enzymes are palindromic sequences.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

1.  I only

2.  II only

3.  I and III only

4.  II and IV only

Answer: B

Explanation: DNA fragments are negatively charged due to their phosphate backbone, not positively charged. Other statements about restriction enzymes and electrophoresis are correct.

Q9 Which process is represented in the following diagram?

1.  PCR

2.  Elution

3.  DNA spooling

4.  Electrophoresis

Answer: C

Explanation: The diagram likely represents electrophoresis, a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on size using an electric field.

Q10 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bioprocess engineering is
concerned with maintaining a sterile environment in cell cultures.

Statement II: Traditional hybridisation in breeding may transfer both desirable and undesirable genes, complicating trait selection. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

2.  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3.  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4.  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation: Bioprocess engineering ensures a sterile environment for cultures, and traditional hybridization can introduce unwanted traits, making selection complex.

Q11 Which of the following carries a natural plasmid that, after disarming, can most effectively and exclusively be used for transforming dicot plant cells?

1.  Meloidogyne incognita

2.  Bacillus thuringiensis

3.  Agrobacterium tumefaciens

4.  Escherichia coli

Answer: C

Explanation: This bacterium carries a natural Ti plasmid, which, after disarming, is used as a vector for transferring genes into dicot plant cells.

Q12 Read the following statements (I-IV).
I. Without staining, DNA fragments in the gel are clearly visible under visible light.
II. Agarose is a natural polymer that is extracted from seaweeds.
III. The first recombinant DNA was constructed
by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer.
IV. Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers per cell.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1.  I and II only

2.  I and III only

3.  III and IV only

4.  II, III and IV only

Answer: D

Explanation: DNA fragments are not visible under normal light without staining. However, agarose is derived from seaweed, the first recombinant DNA was created by Cohen and Boyer, and bacteriophages have high copy numbers.

Q13 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction enzymes are obtained only from eukaryotes.
Statement II: The first restriction endonuclease discovered was EcoRI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1.  Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

2.  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3.  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4.  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Answer: D

Explanation: Restriction enzymes are derived from bacteria, not eukaryotes. The first discovered restriction enzyme was HindII, not EcoRI

Q14 All of the following are correct about primer,
except:

1.  They are oligonucleotides.

2.  They are complementary to the regions of DNA.

3.  They are helpful in annealing in PCR.

4.  They are naturally obtained only.

Answer: D

Explanation: Primers are synthetic oligonucleotides used in PCR, not naturally occurring molecules.

Q15 Select the incorrect statement for the continuous culture system.

1.  In this, used medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from other side.

2.  In this cell are maintained in their physiologically most active lag phase of
   Growth.

3.  It produces larger biomass.

4.  It shows higher yields of desired product.

Answer: B

Explanation: In a continuous culture system, cells are maintained in their log (exponential) phase, not lag phase, to maximize biomass and product yield.

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